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#23
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| Thanks for all of you. I had filed 2007’s with the correct loss in 2006 plus the correct loss in 2000 without each year of $3000 deduction after. I did file 1040x for 2006. -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#22
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| Phil Marti wrote: - quote - > "Seth" wrote:
Check Pub 552 "Recordkeeping for Individuals", it spells out in a table> > But in some cases, it's beyond the 3 years I can claim a refund, but > > still within the assessment period for the IRS, right? (e.g. If it's > > within 6 years and I restate my income with a 30% increase.) > I haven't looked at this recently, but IIRC, the refund and assessment > statutes do not run in tandem. IOW, there are cases in which IRS has longer > than 3 years to assess deficiencies, but the taxpayer doesn't have the same > amount of time to claim a refund. Of course, if the IRS assesses additional > tax under such a statue the taxpayer can pay it and claim a refund within 2 > years of payment even though all is well beyond the original statute. what the time limitations are if you don't file a return or understate your income by a certain percent. -Mark Bole -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#21
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| "Seth" wrote: - quote - > But in some cases, it's beyond the 3 years I can claim a refund, but
I haven't looked at this recently, but IIRC, the refund and assessment> still within the assessment period for the IRS, right? (e.g. If it's > within 6 years and I restate my income with a 30% increase.) statutes do not run in tandem. IOW, there are cases in which IRS has longer than 3 years to assess deficiencies, but the taxpayer doesn't have the same amount of time to claim a refund. Of course, if the IRS assesses additional tax under such a statue the taxpayer can pay it and claim a refund within 2 years of payment even though all is well beyond the original statute. -- Phil Marti Clarksburg, MD -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#20
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| In article <0Gojk.248$iM5.6[at]trnddc07> , Phil Marti <prm20871[at]verizon.net> wrote: - quote - > That one I have researched, and you're flat-out wrong. If assessment is
Thank you for the correction.> barred by statue IRS cannot assess even if you file an amended return. And > if they cannot assess they cannot apply money to the account even if you > pay. (You could always send it off to pay off the national debt.) But in some cases, it's beyond the 3 years I can claim a refund, but still within the assessment period for the IRS, right? (e.g. If it's within 6 years and I restate my income with a 30% increase.) Seth -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#19
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| <removeps-groups[at]yahoo.com> wrote in message news:6f2b8873-d5b0-43fe-903a-e863e7a17bf7[at]p10g2000prf.googlegroups.com... - quote - > On Jul 29, 5:25 pm, LoTax <lo...[at]hotmail.com> wrote:
Capital losses don't create NOLs for individuals. -IRC 172(d)(2).> > It is quite possible that the "intervening" years *don't* use up > > $3,000 per year of the capital loss carryover. It depends on what > > other taxable income is on those returns. If OP's taxable income is > > low enough for any of those years, he'll be entitled to *not* piss > > away $3,000 of the loss for that year, saving more of it for 2007, > > when it will help him. > Does he have to take the 3k loss, then do a NOL carryforward or > carryback? -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#18
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| On Jul 28, 2:59 pm, Alan <sfcnm-...[at]yahoo.com> wrote: - quote - > I see no need to amend the closed years of 2001 thru 2004. Those
It might make sense to amend 2004 if the person is a resident of> years just suck up $12,000 of the $27,000 loss. California. They allow four years to file an amended return, so you can at least get back the California portion for that year, if not the federal. I don't know about other states. -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#17
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| On Jul 29, 5:25 pm, LoTax <lo...[at]hotmail.com> wrote: - quote - > It is quite possible that the "intervening" years *don't* use up
Does he have to take the 3k loss, then do a NOL carryforward or> $3,000 per year of the capital loss carryover. It depends on what > other taxable income is on those returns. If OP's taxable income is > low enough for any of those years, he'll be entitled to *not* piss > away $3,000 of the loss for that year, saving more of it for 2007, > when it will help him. carryback? -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#16
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| It is quite possible that the "intervening" years *don't* use up $3,000 per year of the capital loss carryover. It depends on what other taxable income is on those returns. If OP's taxable income is low enough for any of those years, he'll be entitled to *not* piss away $3,000 of the loss for that year, saving more of it for 2007, when it will help him. OP, what's your taxable income for the years 2001 through 2005? Is it really low? Like, is that maybe why you didn't even claim the loss carryover in those years? Did you file returns for those years??? -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#15
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| On Jul 26, 9:09*am, alphaga...[at]gmail.com wrote: - quote - > After having the 2000’s trades rechecked I have realized that I had
Were you financially disabled from 2001? If so, the time to amend> lost $30,000 instead of $13,000 which had been reported to IRS. I > understood IRS would not allow us file AMENDED 1040x before 2005 due > to the 3 years statue. your return and get a refund is extended. Otherwise, you've forever lost 3k each year from 2001 to 2003, and maybe even 2004 (if you filed an extension for 2004 return it would be due 15 October 2005, and three years from that date is 15 October 2008, and that's 3.5 months away). http://www.taxalmanac.org/index.php/...edit_or_refund Search for "Financially disabled". -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#14
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| "Stuart A. Bronstein" wrote: - quote - > > If
No. If the assessment statute is still open and an amended return is filed> > assessment is barred by statue IRS cannot assess even if you file > > an amended return. And if they cannot assess they cannot apply > > money to the account even if you pay. (You could always send it > > off to pay off the national debt.) > Doesn't the statute start again from the filing of the amended return? the statute is held open n days after the amended return filing (I don't know the exact number, but it's not a full 3 year assessment statute) to allow time for processing. If the amended return is filed after the assessment statute for the original has expired, there can be no further assessment. -- Phil Marti Clarksburg, MD -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#13
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| "Phil Marti" <prm20871[at]verizon.net> wrote: - quote - > "Seth" wrote:
Doesn't the statute start again from the filing of the amended return?> > If amending a closed year results in a higher tax, it has to be > > paid (with interest and maybe penalties). The 3-year limitation > > is one-way. > That one I have researched, and you're flat-out wrong. If > assessment is barred by statue IRS cannot assess even if you file > an amended return. And if they cannot assess they cannot apply > money to the account even if you pay. (You could always send it > off to pay off the national debt.) That's what I would have thought, anyway, but I can see how it could be the way you describe it, too. Stu -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#12
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| LoTax wrote: - quote - > On Jul 27, 2:44 pm, "A.G. Kalman" <sfcnm-...[at]yahoo.com> wrote:
correct loss and the correct loss carryforward to 2001 (appears> > I agree with Phil. The loss carryover (appears to be $10,000) > > from 2000 has been absorbed by 2001, 2002, 2003 and 2004. > But didn't the OP say that "After having the 2000’s trades rechecked I > have realized that I had > lost $30,000 instead of $13,000 which had been reported to IRS." Some > of these $30,000 of losses look like they should carryover to 2007 > from 2000, even with "absorption" in the intervening years.... > And also, I said he could and should refile - amend - his > "intervening" year returns. Phil said he couldn't, which I disagree > with. Whether he has to or not is still, I think, up in the air. Yes, I missed that fact. He should amend 2000 to reflect the to be 27000). I see no need to amend the closed years of 2001 thru 2004. Those years just suck up $12,000 of the $27,000 loss. That leaves a $15000 loss carryforward to 2005. He should amend 2005 to take his $3000 loss, as that year is still open, and carryforward the remaining $12000 loss to 2006. He should amend 2006 to pick up his 17000 of losses, deduct $3000 and carryforward the remaining loss of $26000 to 2007. -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#11
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| "Seth" wrote: - quote - > If amending a closed year results in a higher tax, it has to be paid
That one I have researched, and you're flat-out wrong. If assessment is> (with interest and maybe penalties). The 3-year limitation is > one-way. barred by statue IRS cannot assess even if you file an amended return. And if they cannot assess they cannot apply money to the account even if you pay. (You could always send it off to pay off the national debt.) We had a discussion of the issue some time ago in this forum regarding amending an estate tax return after the assessment statute was closed. -- Phil Marti Clarksburg, MD -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#10
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| In article <1348475[at]news.IPSWITCH.COM> , Dan Lanciani <ddl[at]danlan.*com> wrote: - quote - > What if amending a closed year would have a favorable effect on
If amending a closed year results in a higher tax, it has to be paid> later returns but would result in a higher tax in the closed year? (with interest and maybe penalties). The 3-year limitation is one-way. Seth -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#9
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| In article <8c644914-217a-4ae7-a97a-ceb124c27bfa[at]2g2000hsn.googlegroups.com> , LoTax <lotax[at]hotmail.com> wrote: - quote - > But didn't the OP say that "After having the 2000’s trades rechecked I
I think he should: otherwise, when his returns are examined, a Capital> have realized that I had > lost $30,000 instead of $13,000 which had been reported to IRS." Some > of these $30,000 of losses look like they should carryover to 2007 > from 2000, even with "absorption" in the intervening years.... > And also, I said he could and should refile - amend - his > "intervening" year returns. Phil said he couldn't, which I disagree > with. Whether he has to or not is still, I think, up in the air. Loss Carryforward will "appear" out of thin air (that is, not on the previous year's return). On the other hand, amending the last non-refundable year will mostly avoid that. (The amended return will have the sudden appearance, but the refund can't be made so it might not receive much scrutiny. Subsequent years will appear consistent.) Seth -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#8
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| On Jul 27, 2:44*pm, "A.G. Kalman" <sfcnm-...[at]yahoo.com> wrote: - quote - > I agree with Phil. *The loss carryover (appears to be $10,000) > from 2000 has been absorbed by 2001, 2002, 2003 and 2004. But didn't the OP say that "After having the 2000’s trades rechecked I have realized that I had lost $30,000 instead of $13,000 which had been reported to IRS." Some of these $30,000 of losses look like they should carryover to 2007 from 2000, even with "absorption" in the intervening years.... And also, I said he could and should refile - amend - his "intervening" year returns. Phil said he couldn't, which I disagree with. Whether he has to or not is still, I think, up in the air. -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#7
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| "Ernie Klein" wrote: - quote - > > I see no point to amending returns that didn't use the carryover if no
To me it boils down to a question of what establishes the carryover that> > refund for those years is possible because it's barred by statute. Seems > > to > > me that OP could just do a worksheet adjustment to the carryover for > > those > > years to carry him to the point that refunds from amended returns would > > be > > allowed. > > Since long term capital loss need to be entered on Schedule D, won't he > have to file an amended 2001 return on order to carry over to 2002, > etc., etc., until the present (if anything is left to carry over). goes on the current Schedule D. Is it the loss itself, with the annual application of it from the loss year to present, or is it the annual reporting of it on Schedule D? Again noting that I haven't researched this, it seems to me that once the loss carryover is established and reported on Schedule D for the loss transaction year its future application is set. Thus, in a year in which there were no Schedule D transactions, the application of $3,000 to other income (and the corresponding reduction in carryover loss to the next year) happens whether it's reported on Schedule D or not. (The same would be true if there were Schedule D transactions.) If the taxpayer neglected to take advantage of that $3,000 and the year in question is closed, I don't see the point of filing an amended return which can't claim a refund just to account for the carryover. You can do that on a piece of paper to come up with the amount to put on the Schedule D being filed or (timely) amended. -- Phil Marti Clarksburg, MD -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#6
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| In article <CT2jk.183$JH5.13[at]trnddc06> , "Phil Marti" <prm20871[at]verizon.net> wrote: - quote - > I see no point to amending returns that didn't use the carryover if no
have to file an amended 2001 return on order to carry over to 2002,> refund for those years is possible because it's barred by statute. Seems to > me that OP could just do a worksheet adjustment to the carryover for those > years to carry him to the point that refunds from amended returns would be > allowed. Since long term capital loss need to be entered on Schedule D, won't he etc., etc., until the present (if anything is left to carry over). -- -Ernie- -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#5
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| In article <7b0f1874-8ae3-42fa-ac15-4db4add96905[at]b1g2000hsg.googlegroups.com> , lotax[at]hotmail.com (LoTax) writes: | I think just the opposite. (No, Phil, you won't hit the lottery) I | think that alphaga can change his returns, no matter how much time has | passed. The three-year statute of limitations prohibits *getting a | credit or refund* from amending a return. It does not/should not stop | you from correcting mistakes on returns, especially when they affect | your carryovers to subsequent years. | | I didn't pay enough attention to alphaga's details to be able to tell | him exactly what he can do about correcting the earlier year losses, | but I'm pretty sure that he can amend "early* returns, and that he | *should* amend them, when the changes will affect - favorably affect - | *later* returns. Be prepared, however, to defend the earlier years' | returns, if the IRS challenges them! What if amending a closed year would have a favorable effect on later returns but would result in a higher tax in the closed year? Dan Lanciani ddl[at]danlan.*com -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#4
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| Phil Marti wrote: - quote - > "LoTax" wrote:
from 2000 has been absorbed by 2001, 2002, 2003 and 2004. There> > I didn't pay enough attention to alphaga's details to be able to tell > > him exactly what he can do about correcting the earlier year losses, > > but I'm pretty sure that he can amend "early* returns, and that he > > *should* amend them, when the changes will affect - favorably affect - > > *later* returns. Be prepared, however, to defend the earlier years' > > returns, if the IRS challenges them! > Since it appears we've all done the same amount of research (none) I have no > problem agreeing to a "why not?" approach to amending 2000, the only > "closed" year in which the capital loss realized during the year was > misstated. IRS accepts it or doesn't, and OP proceeds as he wishes. > I see no point to amending returns that didn't use the carryover if no > refund for those years is possible because it's barred by statute. Seems to > me that OP could just do a worksheet adjustment to the carryover for those > years to carry him to the point that refunds from amended returns would be > allowed. I agree with Phil. The loss carryover (appears to be $10,000) is no need to amend those returns as the end result is no change to taxes paid. The OP starts with the 2006 loss. If 2006 did not include a $3000 loss, then 2006 should be amended to account for the $3000 loss and obtain a refund. Carryover loss to 2007 is $14,000. -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
| Tags |
| 1040x, 2000, carryover, filed, incorrectly, schedule |
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