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  #21  
Old 05-11-2008, 08:44 PM
Ira Smilovitz
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Default Re: Cost Basis of PTP's on K-1/1065

"Art" <hidden[at]hidden.com> wrote in message
news:48232c59.2300625[at]news.la.sbcglobal.net...
- quote -

> On Wed, 7 May 2008 16:40:37 EDT, "Ira Smilovitz" <iras1[at]aol.com> wrote:
> > > There are certain items that are reported on Schedule K-1 which the

> > individual taxpayer can elect to treat in more than one way. The choice of
> > treatment affects the tax basis but the PTP has no way of knowing which
> > election the taxpayer made. These issues do not affect all PTPs, so you
> > may
> > not encounter the problem. See the section titled "Elections" a little
> > higher on the same page.
> > > > Strange that the IRS says you cannot trust the box L analysis done by
> > > the partnership, which probably hires pros. But then it's OK to trust
> > > your own records and analysis, and I for one am quite confused .
> > > Ira Smilovitz

> > Yes, indeed, me too.

> The problem with using the entries on the K-1 is that positive numbers
> may actually be negative and vice versa. E.g., Box 18C "Tax-exempt
> Income and Nondeductible Expenses." If it's tax-exempt, does it add
> to or subtract from Tax Basis? Is it included in the Box 19A
> Distributions or is it somehow separate and not actually distributed
> to shareholders? Just WHOSE income is it, anyway?
> I assume the K-1 items you refer to that the taxpayer can elect to
> treat in different ways (and that therefore cannot be incorporated in
> the PTP's K-1 Box L) include Passive Losses and Carryovers. You can
> elect, it appears, to deduct or not deduct these in any given year.
> The rules governing these items are way over my head, and all I can do
> is enter into TurboTax whatever figures from the K-1 it asks for.
> When it asks if I want to deduct the Losses, I say (wottheheck!) Yes,
> but I really have no idea what I'm doing. Presumably this deduction
> affects my Tax Basis but how? And that's just for one year--the
> cumulative effects of the Passive Loss entries over a period of years
> are also over my head, though TurboTax does appear to take a
> not-too-reliable stab at keeping track of them.
> And then there are separate figures and formulas for AMT! I have no
> idea how these fit in.
> Maybe individual shareholders in a PTP are not permitted to deduct
> Passive Losses at all (or do other things with certain K-1 amounts)
> but the PTP's K-1 instructions, the IRS's instructions, and TurboTax's
> instructions all seem to assume you are a tax professional and know
> the answers.
> Still dazed & confused,
> Art


PTPs are not simple investments but the solution is simple. Either pay for
professional tax preparation services and hire someone who does understand
these complex rules or choose to invest in less complex investments.

Ira Smilovitz

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- >
  #20  
Old 05-08-2008, 07:26 PM
Art
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Posts: n/a
Default Re: Cost Basis of PTP's on K-1/1065

On Wed, 7 May 2008 16:40:37 EDT, "Ira Smilovitz" <iras1[at]aol.comwrote:


- quote -

> There are certain items that are reported on Schedule K-1 which the
> individual taxpayer can elect to treat in more than one way. The choice of
> treatment affects the tax basis but the PTP has no way of knowing which
> election the taxpayer made. These issues do not affect all PTPs, so you may
> not encounter the problem. See the section titled "Elections" a little
> higher on the same page.
> > Strange that the IRS says you cannot trust the box L analysis done by
> > the partnership, which probably hires pros. But then it's OK to trust
> > your own records and analysis, and I for one am quite confused .

> Ira Smilovitz


Yes, indeed, me too.

The problem with using the entries on the K-1 is that positive numbers
may actually be negative and vice versa. E.g., Box 18C "Tax-exempt
Income and Nondeductible Expenses." If it's tax-exempt, does it add
to or subtract from Tax Basis? Is it included in the Box 19A
Distributions or is it somehow separate and not actually distributed
to shareholders? Just WHOSE income is it, anyway?

I assume the K-1 items you refer to that the taxpayer can elect to
treat in different ways (and that therefore cannot be incorporated in
the PTP's K-1 Box L) include Passive Losses and Carryovers. You can
elect, it appears, to deduct or not deduct these in any given year.

The rules governing these items are way over my head, and all I can do
is enter into TurboTax whatever figures from the K-1 it asks for.
When it asks if I want to deduct the Losses, I say (wottheheck!) Yes,
but I really have no idea what I'm doing. Presumably this deduction
affects my Tax Basis but how? And that's just for one year--the
cumulative effects of the Passive Loss entries over a period of years
are also over my head, though TurboTax does appear to take a
not-too-reliable stab at keeping track of them.

And then there are separate figures and formulas for AMT! I have no
idea how these fit in.

Maybe individual shareholders in a PTP are not permitted to deduct
Passive Losses at all (or do other things with certain K-1 amounts)
but the PTP's K-1 instructions, the IRS's instructions, and TurboTax's
instructions all seem to assume you are a tax professional and know
the answers.

Still dazed & confused,
Art

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- >
  #19  
Old 05-07-2008, 08:40 PM
Ira Smilovitz
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Posts: n/a
Default Re: Cost Basis of PTP's on K-1/1065

<removeps-groups[at]yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:a9a46061-74b3-4545-ab1a-b34746579e4f[at]z16g2000prn.googlegroups.com...
- quote -

> > > > There seems to have been a great deal of misinformation in this thread
> > > > so
> > > > far. The calculation of taxbasisin a PTP is straightforward. Start with
> > > > your initial purchase price. Each year add all of the income items from
> > > > the
> > > > K-1, subtract all of the expense items, add any additional cash you
> > > > contributed to the PTP (reinvestments, additional purchases, etc.) and
> > > > subtract all of the cash distributions. The result is your new adjusted
> > > > tax
> > > > basis. Continue each year until you sell. Should your adjusted taxbasis
> > > > reach $0, any additional cash distribution is taxable income.

> Above algorithm seems confusing. Say box 1 (odrinary business income)
> and box 5 (interest) are positive. You report these on Schedule E and
> Schedule B part I and pay taxes on it. But from "year add all of the
> income items from the K1" it seems that you're also saying that box 1
> and box 5 add to your cost basis If this is so, then it means that
> when you finally sell your shares you receive a furher tax break --
> say you bought shares at $100 and sold at $120 two years later, so
> long term gain is $20, but say box 1 and box 5 over those two years
> add up to $3, then by the formula above your long term gain is $17.


Correct. If you didn't add this income to your tax basis, you would be
paying tax twice -- once on the $3 of income when it was earned and then the
$20 capital gain when you sold. However, you invested $100, received $120,
and paid tax on $23 of income/gain. But also see below...

- quote -

> And about "and subtract all of the cash distributions". What about
> distributions of property (line 19b)?


Yes, you would also subtract any distributions of property. However, I'm not
aware of any PTP that distributes anything other than cash. If the
cash/property distribution were exactly equal to the $3 of income reported
on the K-1, your tax basis would now be $100 + $3 income - $3 distributions
= $100. You sell for $120 and report $20 of capital gain. You would have
received a total of $123 in cash and paid tax on $3 income + $20 gain.

- quote -

> > > Isn't that what box L "Ending capital account" on the K-1 is
> > > supposed to be when the "Taxbasis" box is selected?
> > > I hope it is. That would be convenient. But if so, then why does the

> > IRS booklet "Partner's Instructions for Schedule K-1 (Form 1065)"
> > state on p.2, "Although the partnership does provide an analysis of
> > the changes to your capital account in item L of Schedule K-1, that
> > information . . . cannot be used to figure yourbasis"???


There are certain items that are reported on Schedule K-1 which the
individual taxpayer can elect to treat in more than one way. The choice of
treatment affects the tax basis but the PTP has no way of knowing which
election the taxpayer made. These issues do not affect all PTPs, so you may
not encounter the problem. See the section titled "Elections" a little
higher on the same page.

- quote -

> Strange that the IRS says you cannot trust the box L analysis done by
> the partnership, which probably hires pros. But then it's OK to trust
> your own records and analysis, and I for one am quite confused .


Ira Smilovitz

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- >
  #18  
Old 05-07-2008, 03:15 PM
removeps-groups@yahoo.com
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default Re: Cost Basis of PTP's on K-1/1065

- quote -

> > > There seems to have been a great deal of misinformation in this thread so
> > > far. The calculation of taxbasisin a PTP is straightforward. Start with
> > > your initial purchase price. Each year add all of the income items from the
> > > K-1, subtract all of the expense items, add any additional cash you
> > > contributed to the PTP (reinvestments, additional purchases, etc.) and
> > > subtract all of the cash distributions. The result is your new adjusted tax
> > > basis. Continue each year until you sell. Should your adjusted taxbasis
> > > reach $0, any additional cash distribution is taxable income.


Above algorithm seems confusing. Say box 1 (odrinary business income)
and box 5 (interest) are positive. You report these on Schedule E and
Schedule B part I and pay taxes on it. But from "year add all of the
income items from the K1" it seems that you're also saying that box 1
and box 5 add to your cost basis If this is so, then it means that
when you finally sell your shares you receive a furher tax break --
say you bought shares at $100 and sold at $120 two years later, so
long term gain is $20, but say box 1 and box 5 over those two years
add up to $3, then by the formula above your long term gain is $17.

And about "and subtract all of the cash distributions". What about
distributions of property (line 19b)?


- quote -

> > Isn't that what box L "Ending capital account" on the K-1 is
> > supposed to be when the "Taxbasis" box is selected?

> I hope it is. That would be convenient. But if so, then why does the
> IRS booklet "Partner's Instructions for Schedule K-1 (Form 1065)"
> state on p.2, "Although the partnership does provide an analysis of
> the changes to your capital account in item L of Schedule K-1, that
> information . . . cannot be used to figure yourbasis"???


Strange that the IRS says you cannot trust the box L analysis done by
the partnership, which probably hires pros. But then it's OK to trust
your own records and analysis, and I for one am quite confused .

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- >
  #17  
Old 04-30-2008, 09:49 PM
Art
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Posts: n/a
Default Re: Cost Basis of PTP's on K-1/1065

On Wed, 30 Apr 2008 11:34:20 EDT, DF2 <replyvia[at]newsgroup_please.comwrote:

- quote -

> In misc.taxes.moderated, Ira Smilovitz wrote:
> > > > There seems to have been a great deal of misinformation in this thread so

> > far. The calculation of tax basis in a PTP is straightforward. Start with
> > your initial purchase price. Each year add all of the income items from the
> > K-1, subtract all of the expense items, add any additional cash you
> > contributed to the PTP (reinvestments, additional purchases, etc.) and
> > subtract all of the cash distributions. The result is your new adjusted tax
> > basis. Continue each year until you sell. Should your adjusted tax basis
> > reach $0, any additional cash distribution is taxable income.

> Isn't that what box L "Ending capital account" on the K-1 is
> supposed to be when the "Tax basis" box is selected?


I hope it is. That would be convenient. But if so, then why does the
IRS booklet "Partner's Instructions for Schedule K-1 (Form 1065)"
state on p.2, "Although the partnership does provide an analysis of
the changes to your capital account in item L of Schedule K-1, that
information . . . cannot be used to figure your basis"???

Never stopping to explain WHY the PTP's records would differ from your
own, which consist entirely of the data on the PTP's annual K-l's, the
booklet then very helpfully adds, "You can figure the adjusted basis
of your partnership interest by adding items that increase your basis
and then subtracting items that decrease your basis."

Well, hey, now we know! Just add the plusses and subtract the
minuses!

But then the instructions furnish a nice "Worksheet for Adjusting the
Basis, etc." First, you take last year's adjusted basis and you add
"Money and your adjusted basis iin property contributed to the
partnership less the associated liabilities (but not less than
zero)."

(I would guess this refers to any new investments or contributions.)

Next, you subtract last year's Box M from this year's Box K and add
the amount of any new partnership liabilities you assumed and add the
result to your tax basis, (By this point I am totally lost).

Next, add your share of this year's partnership income including
tax-exempt income (does this mean all positive numbers on the K-1 such
as Box 6a, Ordinary Dividends?). And what about Box 16, Foreign
Transactions, including such choice items as "Deductions General
Category" and "Total Foreign Taxes Accrued"? And are these actually
positive or negative numbers?

There are 7 more mind-bending steps. I suspect the trouble here is
that the IRS requires that a PTP send its "limited partners" (who are
really just passive shareholders) the same K-1 form that an active
general partner receives. Small individual shareholders in a PTP,
while legally "limited partners" and eligible for the favorable tax
treatment of PTP distributions, would be better served by some sort of
special 1099 that doesn't require a battery of specialists to
decipher.

Art

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- >
  #16  
Old 04-30-2008, 03:34 PM
DF2
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Posts: n/a
Default Re: Cost Basis of PTP's on K-1/1065

In misc.taxes.moderated, Ira Smilovitz wrote:

- quote -

> There seems to have been a great deal of misinformation in this thread so
> far. The calculation of tax basis in a PTP is straightforward. Start with
> your initial purchase price. Each year add all of the income items from the
> K-1, subtract all of the expense items, add any additional cash you
> contributed to the PTP (reinvestments, additional purchases, etc.) and
> subtract all of the cash distributions. The result is your new adjusted tax
> basis. Continue each year until you sell. Should your adjusted tax basis
> reach $0, any additional cash distribution is taxable income.


Isn't that what box L "Ending capital account" on the K-1 is
supposed to be when the "Tax basis" box is selected?

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- >
  #15  
Old 04-30-2008, 01:50 AM
Ira Smilovitz
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default Re: Cost Basis of PTP's on K-1/1065

"Art" <hidden[at]hidden.com> wrote in message
news:4814b0ba.1869062[at]news.la.sbcglobal.net...
- quote -

> Nice discussion of the PTP K-1 problem. Thanks for the suggestions.
> Yes, on one or more of my PTP K-1's, the Box L "capital account" is in
> negative territory. But this is a caculation made by the PTP for its
> purposes, not a running tax basis number I can use in my own 1040.
> Still, when I subtract all the distributions over the years from my
> original cost (the simple, easy, and apparently incorrect procedure),
> the result is now pretty close to zero and should hit zero by 2009.
> The rule is that when your tax basis hits zero, new distributions must
> be reported as income, either cap gains or dividends, not sure which
> (and that's not too hard to find out, I think).
> The problem remains: how do I use the figures in the annual K-1 to
> calculate what portion of distributions is NOT return of capital and
> therefore doesn't reduce my cost basis? It's got to be in there
> somewhere.
> If I had a "tax advisor" I would leave it up to him/her, but I do my
> own 1040 using TurboTax, which works OK until the cost basis becomes
> zero. TurboTax has me enter the K-1 figures box by box and then does
> the calculations. But TurboTax doesn't seem to keep an annual tally
> of PTP cost basis.
> Art
> On Sat, 19 Apr 2008 16:26:27 EDT, hidden[at]hidden.com (Art) wrote:
> > Hello--
> > > I'm a shareholder (or "limited partner") in several publicly traded

> > partnerships whose distributions are mostly returns of capital that
> > reduce my cost basis as they are paid out. I'm trying to calculate my
> > tax basis in each PTP, because when it reaches zero the distributions
> > become taxable--and also because I might sell them. The trick is
> > knowing when it's zero.
> > > Each PTP's annual K-1 sent to shareholders shows a Partner's Capital

> > Account Analysis in Box L. But the IRS instructions for K-1/1065 warn
> > that Box L "cannot be used to figure your basis." Anyhow, some of
> > those Box L bottom lines are already in negative numbers, which the
> > instructions tell you not to use.
> > > On p. 2 of the IRS instructions, there's a "Worksheet for Adjusting

> > the Basis of a Partner's Interest in the Partnership" but it requires
> > some expert understanding of the K-1 entries and how they interrelate,
> > from year to year.
> > > So is it OK to just deduct from my original cost the cumulative

> > distributions since I purchased the shares? Probably not. Some parts
> > of the distributions were NOT return of capital but passive income,
> > interest, and other categories that complicate the arithmetic in ways
> > I don't grasp. Also, passive losses and carryovers affect the
> > calculation too.
> > > Is there a "K-1 for Dummies" book or other source that explains PTP

> > cost basis in layman's terms? Any guidance will be appreciated.
> > > Thanks for reading this far--

> > Art


There seems to have been a great deal of misinformation in this thread so
far. The calculation of tax basis in a PTP is straightforward. Start with
your initial purchase price. Each year add all of the income items from the
K-1, subtract all of the expense items, add any additional cash you
contributed to the PTP (reinvestments, additional purchases, etc.) and
subtract all of the cash distributions. The result is your new adjusted tax
basis. Continue each year until you sell. Should your adjusted tax basis
reach $0, any additional cash distribution is taxable income.

Ira Smilovitz

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- >
  #14  
Old 04-27-2008, 09:20 PM
Art
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default Re: Cost Basis of PTP's on K-1/1065

Nice discussion of the PTP K-1 problem. Thanks for the suggestions.

Yes, on one or more of my PTP K-1's, the Box L "capital account" is in
negative territory. But this is a caculation made by the PTP for its
purposes, not a running tax basis number I can use in my own 1040.

Still, when I subtract all the distributions over the years from my
original cost (the simple, easy, and apparently incorrect procedure),
the result is now pretty close to zero and should hit zero by 2009.
The rule is that when your tax basis hits zero, new distributions must
be reported as income, either cap gains or dividends, not sure which
(and that's not too hard to find out, I think).

The problem remains: how do I use the figures in the annual K-1 to
calculate what portion of distributions is NOT return of capital and
therefore doesn't reduce my cost basis? It's got to be in there
somewhere.

If I had a "tax advisor" I would leave it up to him/her, but I do my
own 1040 using TurboTax, which works OK until the cost basis becomes
zero. TurboTax has me enter the K-1 figures box by box and then does
the calculations. But TurboTax doesn't seem to keep an annual tally
of PTP cost basis.

Art


On Sat, 19 Apr 2008 16:26:27 EDT, hidden[at]hidden.com (Art) wrote:

- quote -

> Hello--
> I'm a shareholder (or "limited partner") in several publicly traded
> partnerships whose distributions are mostly returns of capital that
> reduce my cost basis as they are paid out. I'm trying to calculate my
> tax basis in each PTP, because when it reaches zero the distributions
> become taxable--and also because I might sell them. The trick is
> knowing when it's zero.
> Each PTP's annual K-1 sent to shareholders shows a Partner's Capital
> Account Analysis in Box L. But the IRS instructions for K-1/1065 warn
> that Box L "cannot be used to figure your basis." Anyhow, some of
> those Box L bottom lines are already in negative numbers, which the
> instructions tell you not to use.
> On p. 2 of the IRS instructions, there's a "Worksheet for Adjusting
> the Basis of a Partner's Interest in the Partnership" but it requires
> some expert understanding of the K-1 entries and how they interrelate,
> from year to year.
> So is it OK to just deduct from my original cost the cumulative
> distributions since I purchased the shares? Probably not. Some parts
> of the distributions were NOT return of capital but passive income,
> interest, and other categories that complicate the arithmetic in ways
> I don't grasp. Also, passive losses and carryovers affect the
> calculation too.
> Is there a "K-1 for Dummies" book or other source that explains PTP
> cost basis in layman's terms? Any guidance will be appreciated.
> Thanks for reading this far--
> Art


--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- >
  #13  
Old 04-25-2008, 12:02 PM
DF2
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default Re: Cost Basis of PTP's on K-1/1065

In misc.taxes.moderated, Art wrote:

- quote -

> I'm a shareholder (or "limited partner") in several publicly traded
> partnerships whose distributions are mostly returns of capital that
> reduce my cost basis as they are paid out. I'm trying to calculate my
> tax basis in each PTP, because when it reaches zero the distributions
> become taxable--and also because I might sell them. The trick is
> knowing when it's zero.
> Each PTP's annual K-1 sent to shareholders shows a Partner's Capital
> Account Analysis in Box L. But the IRS instructions for K-1/1065 warn
> that Box L "cannot be used to figure your basis." Anyhow, some of
> those Box L bottom lines are already in negative numbers, which the
> instructions tell you not to use.


I have not have that happen. If I did, I guess I would consider
using zero if the number went negative. But that is a non-expert
guess.

- quote -

> On p. 2 of the IRS instructions, there's a "Worksheet for Adjusting
> the Basis of a Partner's Interest in the Partnership" but it requires
> some expert understanding of the K-1 entries and how they interrelate,
> from year to year.
> So is it OK to just deduct from my original cost the cumulative
> distributions since I purchased the shares? Probably not. Some parts
> of the distributions were NOT return of capital but passive income,
> interest,


I agree that is an important point; many distributions are not
return of capital and are taxed in their various ways on each return

This is an interesting topic that few are brave enough to discuss. I
am nothing like an expert and don't have a recommendation. If I saw
the capital account number go negative, I would contact the
partnership by phone or email and ask what a negative number means.

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- >
  #12  
Old 04-23-2008, 06:29 PM
Arthur Kamlet
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default Re: Cost Basis of PTP's on K-1/1065

In article <47046aa3-1e67-4a86-9b84-f001d576cd24[at]w1g2000prd.googlegroups.com> ,
removeps-groups[at]yahoo.com <removeps-groups[at]yahoo.com> wrote:
- quote -

> On Apr 22, 12:22 pm, kam...[at]panix.com (Arthur Kamlet) wrote:
> > I assume AB is treated as a PTP and not as a corporation?

> Yes, AB is a partnership.
> > If so, then your basis is your original basis plus dividends
> > paid to you plus reinvested amounts. Even capital gains
> > distributions you are paid add to your basis. And that is true
> > even if you do not do any reinvesting. In most cases if the PTP
> > tracks your basis, I would use their figures.

> Are you saying that that if AB pays dividends and those dividends are
> not re-invested, they still add to my cost basis in AB? That doesn't
> make sense to me.



That was sloppy of me. I agree with you.


Also if AB recognized accrued interest paid, and passed that to
you on a K-1, it lowers your basis.
--


ArtKamlet at a o l dot c o m Columbus OH K2PZH

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- >
  #11  
Old 04-23-2008, 03:11 PM
removeps-groups@yahoo.com
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default Re: Cost Basis of PTP's on K-1/1065

On Apr 22, 12:22 pm, kam...[at]panix.com (Arthur Kamlet) wrote:

- quote -

> I assume AB is treated as a PTP and not as a corporation?

Yes, AB is a partnership.

- quote -

> If so, then your basis is your original basis plus dividends
> paid to you plus reinvested amounts. Even capital gains
> distributions you are paid add to your basis. And that is true
> even if you do not do any reinvesting. In most cases if the PTP
> tracks your basis, I would use their figures.


Are you saying that that if AB pays dividends and those dividends are
not re-invested, they still add to my cost basis in AB? That doesn't
make sense to me.

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- >
  #10  
Old 04-22-2008, 07:22 PM
Arthur Kamlet
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default Re: Cost Basis of PTP's on K-1/1065

In article <08c5c036-0cab-4a3e-a347-a073a43f234c[at]26g2000hsk.googlegroups.com> ,
removeps-groups[at]yahoo.com <removeps-groups[at]yahoo.com> wrote:
- quote -

> On Apr 21, 7:04*pm, kam...[at]panix.com (Arthur Kamlet) wrote:
> > > Could it be that the corporation earned dividends which were reported
> > > on line 6a (ordinary dividends) but then re-invested those dividends.

> > No.
> > > See the OP. This is a publicly traded partnership in which OP is a

> > limited partner.

> I don't understand. Some LLC's, for example Alliance Bernstein (AB),
> pay dividends. If those dividends are automatically reinvested, as
> dividends from a mutual fund may be automatically reinvested, then
> that adds to the capital basis. If this is the case, then the sum of
> line 19 may be be larger than the initial investment, but still less
> than the actual investment (which is initial investment plus re-
> investments), and in this case there would be no excess to report on
> Schedule D.


My last comment was directed at the statement that this was a
corporation.

We don't really deal with Distributions in a corporation.


I assume AB is treated as a PTP and not as a corporation?


If so, then your basis is your original basis plus dividends
paid to you plus reinvested amounts. Even capital gains
distributions you are paid add to your basis. And that is true
even if you do not do any reinvesting. In most cases if the PTP
tracks your basis, I would use their figures.
--


ArtKamlet at a o l dot c o m Columbus OH K2PZH

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- >
  #9  
Old 04-22-2008, 07:05 PM
removeps-groups@yahoo.com
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default Re: Cost Basis of PTP's on K-1/1065

On Apr 21, 7:04*pm, kam...[at]panix.com (Arthur Kamlet) wrote:

- quote -

> > Could it be that the corporation earned dividends which were reported
> > on line 6a (ordinary dividends) but then re-invested those dividends.


> No.
> See the OP. This is a publicly traded partnership in which OP is a
> limited partner.


I don't understand. Some LLC's, for example Alliance Bernstein (AB),
pay dividends. If those dividends are automatically reinvested, as
dividends from a mutual fund may be automatically reinvested, then
that adds to the capital basis. If this is the case, then the sum of
line 19 may be be larger than the initial investment, but still less
than the actual investment (which is initial investment plus re-
investments), and in this case there would be no excess to report on
Schedule D.

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- >
  #8  
Old 04-22-2008, 05:50 PM
Arthur Kamlet
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default Re: Cost Basis of PTP's on K-1/1065

In article <wmmPj.119292$D_3.50124[at]bgtnsc05-news.ops.worldnet.att.net> ,
njoracle <njoracle[at]att.net> wrote:
- quote -

> Arthur Kamlet wrote:
> > In article <IG9Pj.227630$cQ1.138920[at]bgtnsc04-news.ops.worldnet.att.net> ,
> > njoracle <njoracle[at]att.net> wrote:
> > > Arthur Kamlet wrote:
> > > > In article <Y34Pj.226110$cQ1.181637[at]bgtnsc04-news.ops.worldnet.att.net> ,
> > > > njoracle <njoracle[at]att.net> wrote:
> > > > > removeps-groups[at]yahoo.com wrote:
> > > > > > On Apr 19, 1:26 pm, hid...[at]hidden.com (Art) wrote:
> > > > Your capital is what you put in after reduction by other distributions,
> > > > plus what you earned and retained, such as interest and dividends paid
> > > > to you, less losses you recognized that came to you on a K-1.
> > > I originally purchased the PTP from my broker anmd the price I paid is
> > > what I put in. I get a statement from the broker showing the
> > > distribution which is the same amount shown on line 19. So I know what I
> > > paid and what the distributions but I don't know how to calculate how
> > > much of the of the distribution is return of capital.
> > > Until you reduce the distribution to zzero, it is all return of capital.
> > > If it were something other than a distribution, the k-1 would

> > say so.
> > > > > > It is unusual for your capital account to actually go negative.
> > > If the distribution is 100% return of capital, how can you say that it
> > > would be unusual that capital account would go negative?
> > > > Do you have any more capital invested to be returned to you?
> > > > Pleae re-read your last question. You can reduce your invested

> > capital to zero, but no more.

> You are correct. It can't go below zero. I set Quicken up to record all
> distributions as "Return of Capital" and because the total of the
> distributions is more then what I paid for the stock, Quicken shows it
> as negative. However, it should be treated as zero.
> That said, it appears that I will owe tax on the distributions for 2008.
> The question remains: How do I report these taxable distributions on
> my 1040?



Distributions in excess of basis are reported in the year paid
on your 1040 schedule D.
--


ArtKamlet at a o l dot c o m Columbus OH K2PZH

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- >
  #7  
Old 04-22-2008, 05:39 PM
njoracle
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default Re: Cost Basis of PTP's on K-1/1065

Arthur Kamlet wrote:
- quote -

> In article <IG9Pj.227630$cQ1.138920[at]bgtnsc04-news.ops.worldnet.att.net> ,
> njoracle <njoracle[at]att.net> wrote:
> > Arthur Kamlet wrote:
> > > In article <Y34Pj.226110$cQ1.181637[at]bgtnsc04-news.ops.worldnet.att.net> ,
> > > njoracle <njoracle[at]att.net> wrote:
> > > > removeps-groups[at]yahoo.com wrote:
> > > > > On Apr 19, 1:26 pm, hid...[at]hidden.com (Art) wrote:
> > > Your capital is what you put in after reduction by other distributions,
> > > plus what you earned and retained, such as interest and dividends paid
> > > to you, less losses you recognized that came to you on a K-1.

> > I originally purchased the PTP from my broker anmd the price I paid is
> > what I put in. I get a statement from the broker showing the
> > distribution which is the same amount shown on line 19. So I know what I
> > paid and what the distributions but I don't know how to calculate how
> > much of the of the distribution is return of capital.

> Until you reduce the distribution to zzero, it is all return of capital.
> If it were something other than a distribution, the k-1 would
> say so.
> > > It is unusual for your capital account to actually go negative.

> > If the distribution is 100% return of capital, how can you say that it
> > would be unusual that capital account would go negative?

> Do you have any more capital invested to be returned to you?
> Pleae re-read your last question. You can reduce your invested
> capital to zero, but no more.


You are correct. It can't go below zero. I set Quicken up to record all
distributions as "Return of Capital" and because the total of the
distributions is more then what I paid for the stock, Quicken shows it
as negative. However, it should be treated as zero.

That said, it appears that I will owe tax on the distributions for 2008.
The question remains: How do I report these taxable distributions on
my 1040?

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- >
  #6  
Old 04-22-2008, 02:04 AM
Arthur Kamlet
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default Re: Cost Basis of PTP's on K-1/1065

In article <e3cf811c-b7fd-4e32-ad8b-207aa7882176[at]w4g2000prd.googlegroups.com> ,
removeps-groups[at]yahoo.com <removeps-groups[at]yahoo.com> wrote:
- quote -

> On Apr 21, 11:58 am, kam...[at]panix.com (Arthur Kamlet) wrote:
> > Your capital is what you put in after reduction by other distributions,
> > plus what you earned and retained, such as interest and dividends paid
> > to you, less losses you recognized that came to you on a K-1.
> > > It is unusual for your capital account to actually go negative.

> Could it be that the corporation earned dividends which were reported
> on line 6a (ordinary dividends) but then re-invested those dividends.
> Say the corporation paid dividends of 1k in 2004 and reinvested them.
> Then the taxpayer would report 1k of dividends on Schedule B and pay
> taxes on it. But then that 1k is added to the capital investment. So
> say he originally bought shares of the corporation in 2002 for $500,
> and line 19 over the years adds up to $700, that's OK because the
> capital investment is 500+1000-700=800.


No.

See the OP. This is a publicly traded partnership in which OP is a
limited partner.

--


ArtKamlet at a o l dot c o m Columbus OH K2PZH

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- >
  #5  
Old 04-22-2008, 01:59 AM
removeps-groups@yahoo.com
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default Re: Cost Basis of PTP's on K-1/1065

On Apr 21, 11:58 am, kam...[at]panix.com (Arthur Kamlet) wrote:

- quote -

> Your capital is what you put in after reduction by other distributions,
> plus what you earned and retained, such as interest and dividends paid
> to you, less losses you recognized that came to you on a K-1.
> It is unusual for your capital account to actually go negative.


Could it be that the corporation earned dividends which were reported
on line 6a (ordinary dividends) but then re-invested those dividends.
Say the corporation paid dividends of 1k in 2004 and reinvested them.
Then the taxpayer would report 1k of dividends on Schedule B and pay
taxes on it. But then that 1k is added to the capital investment. So
say he originally bought shares of the corporation in 2002 for $500,
and line 19 over the years adds up to $700, that's OK because the
capital investment is 500+1000-700=800.

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- >
  #4  
Old 04-22-2008, 12:17 AM
Arthur Kamlet
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default Re: Cost Basis of PTP's on K-1/1065

In article <IG9Pj.227630$cQ1.138920[at]bgtnsc04-news.ops.worldnet.att.net> ,
njoracle <njoracle[at]att.net> wrote:
- quote -

> Arthur Kamlet wrote:
> > In article <Y34Pj.226110$cQ1.181637[at]bgtnsc04-news.ops.worldnet.att.net> ,
> > njoracle <njoracle[at]att.net> wrote:
> > > removeps-groups[at]yahoo.com wrote:
> > > > On Apr 19, 1:26 pm, hid...[at]hidden.com (Art) wrote:
> > > Your capital is what you put in after reduction by other distributions,

> > plus what you earned and retained, such as interest and dividends paid
> > to you, less losses you recognized that came to you on a K-1.

> I originally purchased the PTP from my broker anmd the price I paid is
> what I put in. I get a statement from the broker showing the
> distribution which is the same amount shown on line 19. So I know what I
> paid and what the distributions but I don't know how to calculate how
> much of the of the distribution is return of capital.


Until you reduce the distribution to zzero, it is all return of capital.

If it were something other than a distribution, the k-1 would
say so.


- quote -

> > It is unusual for your capital account to actually go negative.
> If the distribution is 100% return of capital, how can you say that it
> would be unusual that capital account would go negative?



Do you have any more capital invested to be returned to you?


Pleae re-read your last question. You can reduce your invested
capital to zero, but no more.
--


ArtKamlet at a o l dot c o m Columbus OH K2PZH

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- >
  #3  
Old 04-22-2008, 12:08 AM
njoracle
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default Re: Cost Basis of PTP's on K-1/1065

Arthur Kamlet wrote:
- quote -

> In article <Y34Pj.226110$cQ1.181637[at]bgtnsc04-news.ops.worldnet.att.net> ,
> njoracle <njoracle[at]att.net> wrote:
> > removeps-groups[at]yahoo.com wrote:
> > > On Apr 19, 1:26 pm, hid...[at]hidden.com (Art) wrote:


> Your capital is what you put in after reduction by other distributions,
> plus what you earned and retained, such as interest and dividends paid
> to you, less losses you recognized that came to you on a K-1.


I originally purchased the PTP from my broker anmd the price I paid is
what I put in. I get a statement from the broker showing the
distribution which is the same amount shown on line 19. So I know what I
paid and what the distributions but I don't know how to calculate how
much of the of the distribution is return of capital.

- quote -

> It is unusual for your capital account to actually go negative.

If the distribution is 100% return of capital, how can you say that it
would be unusual that capital account would go negative?

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- >
  #2  
Old 04-21-2008, 06:58 PM
Arthur Kamlet
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default Re: Cost Basis of PTP's on K-1/1065

In article <Y34Pj.226110$cQ1.181637[at]bgtnsc04-news.ops.worldnet.att.net> ,
njoracle <njoracle[at]att.net> wrote:
- quote -

> removeps-groups[at]yahoo.com wrote:
> > On Apr 19, 1:26 pm, hid...[at]hidden.com (Art) wrote:
> > > > Each PTP's annual K-1 sent to shareholders shows a Partner's Capital
> > > Account Analysis in Box L. But the IRS instructions for K-1/1065 warn
> > > that Box L "cannot be used to figure your basis." Anyhow, some of
> > > those Box L bottom lines are already in negative numbers, which the
> > > instructions tell you not to use.
> > > How about box 19 (Distributions), codes A and B?
> > > > On p. 2 of the IRS instructions, there's a "Worksheet for Adjusting
> > > the Basis of a Partner's Interest in the Partnership" but it requires
> > > some expert understanding of the K-1 entries and how they interrelate,
> > > from year to year.
> > > Sorry, I haven't used this worksheet before. It's quite long, whereas

> > adding line 19 over all the years seems easier. Maybe the worksheet
> > is more thorough.
> > For my PTP, I added up all of the line 19 distributions from the

> beginning and they add up to more then the original cost for the first
> time this year (2008) and I will have to address this issue for 2008.
> Assuming that all of these distributions are "Return of Capital" (which
> is probably not 100% true), how does one report this as income? Is this
> considered a capital gain and reported on Sched D or is it other income
> and reported on 1040, line 21 or does it go somewhere else?
> The issue remains that we (the OP and I ) don't know how to calculate
> how much of the distribution is "Return of Capital" and how much is
> something else. Apparently the data in Box L, does not give you the true
> value of "Return of Capital"



Your capital is what you put in after reduction by other distributions,
plus what you earned and retained, such as interest and dividends paid
to you, less losses you recognized that came to you on a K-1.

It is unusual for your capital account to actually go negative.
--


ArtKamlet at a o l dot c o m Columbus OH K2PZH

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- >
 

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