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#10
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| In article <96976230-b1e7-4461-bd96-8e3ff4340a24[at]q24g2000prf.googlegroups.com> , removeps-groups[at]yahoo.com <removeps-groups[at]yahoo.com> wrote: - quote - > On Apr 27, 5:19 pm, kam...[at]panix.com (Arthur Kamlet) wrote: > > See lines 18 & 19 of the Qualified Dividends and Capital Gains > > Worksheet on page 35 of the Form 1040 instructions. > > Line 18 asks you to figure the tax on your taxable income without > > taking into account any special lower rates. Line 19 asks you to > > choose the lower of line 18 or your tax calculated with the lower > > tax rate applied. > Line 18 and line 19 are not sufficient to generate the lower tax. > Turns out my example is too simplistic; the real scenario has several > thousand dollars of qualified dividends and long term gains. Line 18 > asks you to compute the tax on your entire taxable income using the > tax table. This means that all the qualified dividends and long term > gains (several thousand dollars) would be taxed at ordinary income > rates, which is roughly 25% in my scenario -- the person's salary > alone puts them in the 25% bracket. So I want the 15% rate for these > qualified dividends and capital gains. It's just the single capital > gain of $35 that I want to be treated as short term. Is it possible > by section 163? I wouldn't use that. I would calculate based on modifying the worksheet in order to not pay any more tax when applying the 15% rate to LT gains and Q.D. and then disclose this recalculation of a few bucks on form 8275. -- ArtKamlet at a o l dot c o m Columbus OH K2PZH -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#9
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| On Apr 27, 5:19 pm, kam...[at]panix.com (Arthur Kamlet) wrote: - quote - > See lines 18 & 19 of the Qualified Dividends and Capital Gains
Line 18 and line 19 are not sufficient to generate the lower tax.> Worksheet on page 35 of the Form 1040 instructions. > Line 18 asks you to figure the tax on your taxable income without > taking into account any special lower rates. Line 19 asks you to > choose the lower of line 18 or your tax calculated with the lower > tax rate applied. Turns out my example is too simplistic; the real scenario has several thousand dollars of qualified dividends and long term gains. Line 18 asks you to compute the tax on your entire taxable income using the tax table. This means that all the qualified dividends and long term gains (several thousand dollars) would be taxed at ordinary income rates, which is roughly 25% in my scenario -- the person's salary alone puts them in the 25% bracket. So I want the 15% rate for these qualified dividends and capital gains. It's just the single capital gain of $35 that I want to be treated as short term. Is it possible by section 163? -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#8
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| In article <64683d65-270d-445a-9201-06e8d809df7c[at]1g2000prg.googlegroups.com> , removeps-groups[at]yahoo.com <removeps-groups[at]yahoo.com> wrote: - quote - > On Apr 7, 1:17 pm, "removeps-gro...[at]yahoo.com" <removeps- > gro...[at]yahoo.com> wrote: > > Then I decided to calculate the exact numbers, hoping it would reduce > > tax. The cost basis was $14 and the purchase date many years ago, so > > the net gain waslong termof 35-14=21. But the tax increased! > > > It seems the reason for this is the rounding of taxes under 100k. > > Consider by example: > I just remembered, one can elect to treat long term capital gains as > short term. Is this true in general, or only for the purpose of > increasing the investment interest deduction (ie. maximum allowsable > investment interest deduction is the sum of interest, ordinary > dividends, short term gains - hope I wrote the rule right). > http://www.taxalmanac.org/index.php/Sec._163._Interest I see no obstacle to foregoing long term rates in favor of short term rates, but I am not convinced from your example that it is needed here. See my other message on the qualified dividend and capital gain workseet lines 18 and 19. -- ArtKamlet at a o l dot c o m Columbus OH K2PZH -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#7
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| In article <1763e4c0-07de-45c4-b4aa-1ec6966f3a68[at]u12g2000prd.googlegroups.com> , removeps-groups[at]yahoo.com <removeps-groups[at]yahoo.com> wrote: - quote - > I ran into a strange problem. There was a spin off, and about $35 was > received for cash in lieu. Being lazy to look up the original > purchase date and calculate the cost basis for the fractional number > of shares, I just entered the purchase date as the date of the split > and the cost basis as zero, for a net short term gain of $35. > Then I decided to calculate the exact numbers, hoping it would reduce > tax. The cost basis was $14 and the purchase date many years ago, so > the net gain was long term of 35-14=21. But the tax increased! > It seems the reason for this is the rounding of taxes under 100k. > Consider by example: > - For single filer, 50000 to 50050 has tax of 8930 > - Suppose taxable income is 50050 with the $35 included in short term > gains > - Tax is 8930 > - Now remove $35 for short term gain and add $21 to long germ gains > - Short term tax is still 8930 > - Add long term tax of 21*0.15 = $3 rounded > And to make matters worse, in the lazy approach, the cost basis for > the shares when you eventually sell them would be X. But in the exact > approach, the cost basis would be X-14, thereby increasing your tax by > 14*0.15 = $2 rounded. > Is there anything that can be done about this? See lines 18 & 19 of the Qualified Dividends and Capital Gains Worksheet on page 35 of the Form 1040 instructions. Line 18 asks you to figure the tax on your taxable income without taking into account any special lower rates. Line 19 asks you to choose the lower of line 18 or your tax calculated with the lower tax rate applied. -- ArtKamlet at a o l dot c o m Columbus OH K2PZH -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#6
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| On Apr 7, 1:17 pm, "removeps-gro...[at]yahoo.com" <removeps- gro...[at]yahoo.com> wrote: - quote - > Then I decided to calculate the exact numbers, hoping it would reduce
I just remembered, one can elect to treat long term capital gains as> tax. The cost basis was $14 and the purchase date many years ago, so > the net gain waslong termof 35-14=21. But the tax increased! > It seems the reason for this is the rounding of taxes under 100k. > Consider by example: short term. Is this true in general, or only for the purpose of increasing the investment interest deduction (ie. maximum allowsable investment interest deduction is the sum of interest, ordinary dividends, short term gains - hope I wrote the rule right). http://www.taxalmanac.org/index.php/Sec._163._Interest -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#5
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| On Apr 7, 1:31 pm, "Phil Marti" <prm20...[at]verizon.net> wrote: - quote - > If that isn't feasible, write your members of Congress suggesting that they
I don't like the idea of choice as it further complicates the tax code> amend the law to offer the taxpayer the option to use the tax rate schedules > at all income levels. and compliance. But in the future, probably all returns will be eFiled, so then they would always use the calculation as the computer would do all the work. -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#4
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| On Apr 7, 7:17 pm, Barry Margolin <bar...[at]alum.mit.edu> wrote: - quote - > Anyway, going back to my earlier point about the fact that it's a crap
Yes, you make a good point. In any case, the $0.10 would be rounded> shoot, the likelihood that you'll be screwed by the tax table is > inversely proportional to the amount you'll be screwed. If the check > had been $1, there's a 98% chance of staying in the same $50 range, but > the difference between income and capital gain tax on that $1 would only > be about a dime. down to $0. -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#3
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| In article <gdAKj.938$NM.585[at]trnddc01> , "Phil Marti" <prm20871[at]verizon.net> wrote: - quote - > "Barry Margolin" wrote:
Too bad.> > I vaguely recall that when I used to do my taxes by hand (about 25 years > > ago, before Macintax) that you could actually choose whether to use the > > tax table or calculate the percentage exactly. Am I misremembering? Is > > this still allowed? > I have the same recollection of back when the earth was cooling. However > under current law you must use the Tax Tables if taxable income is less than > $100,000.. Anyway, going back to my earlier point about the fact that it's a crap shoot, the likelihood that you'll be screwed by the tax table is inversely proportional to the amount you'll be screwed. If the check had been $1, there's a 98% chance of staying in the same $50 range, but the difference between income and capital gain tax on that $1 would only be about a dime. -- Barry Margolin, barmar[at]alum.mit.edu Arlington, MA *** PLEASE don't copy me on replies, I'll read them in the group *** -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#2
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| "Barry Margolin" wrote: - quote - > I vaguely recall that when I used to do my taxes by hand (about 25 years
I have the same recollection of back when the earth was cooling. However> ago, before Macintax) that you could actually choose whether to use the > tax table or calculate the percentage exactly. Am I misremembering? Is > this still allowed? under current law you must use the Tax Tables if taxable income is less than $100,000.. -- Phil Marti Clarksburg, MD -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#1
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| In article <1763e4c0-07de-45c4-b4aa-1ec6966f3a68[at]u12g2000prd.googlegroups.com> , "removeps-groups[at]yahoo.com" <removeps-groups[at]yahoo.com> wrote: - quote - > I ran into a strange problem. There was a spin off, and about $35 was
On the other hand, if their income had been $50,051 with the $35> received for cash in lieu. Being lazy to look up the original > purchase date and calculate the cost basis for the fractional number > of shares, I just entered the purchase date as the date of the split > and the cost basis as zero, for a net short term gain of $35. > Then I decided to calculate the exact numbers, hoping it would reduce > tax. The cost basis was $14 and the purchase date many years ago, so > the net gain was long term of 35-14=21. But the tax increased! > It seems the reason for this is the rounding of taxes under 100k. > Consider by example: > - For single filer, 50000 to 50050 has tax of 8930 > - Suppose taxable income is 50050 with the $35 included in short term > gains > - Tax is 8930 > - Now remove $35 for short term gain and add $21 to long germ gains > - Short term tax is still 8930 > - Add long term tax of 21*0.15 = $3 rounded > And to make matters worse, in the lazy approach, the cost basis for > the shares when you eventually sell them would be X. But in the exact > approach, the cost basis would be X-14, thereby increasing your tax by > 14*0.15 = $2 rounded. > Is there anything that can be done about this? included, your regular tax would drop by $50*marginal rate and the capital gain tax would increase by $14*15%, so you would get a significant saving. Using the granular tax tables tends to magnify some small income differences and ignore others, depending on the luck of whether you cross one of the $50 boundaries. In the case of a $35 check, you have a 70% chance of winning, 30% chance of losing. I vaguely recall that when I used to do my taxes by hand (about 25 years ago, before Macintax) that you could actually choose whether to use the tax table or calculate the percentage exactly. Am I misremembering? Is this still allowed? -- Barry Margolin, barmar[at]alum.mit.edu Arlington, MA *** PLEASE don't copy me on replies, I'll read them in the group *** -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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| <removeps-groups[at]yahoo.com> wrote: - quote - > I ran into a strange problem. There was a spin off, and about $35 was
Get to over $100,000 of taxable income so you're forced to the tax rate> received for cash in lieu. Being lazy to look up the original > purchase date and calculate the cost basis for the fractional number > of shares, I just entered the purchase date as the date of the split > and the cost basis as zero, for a net short term gain of $35. > Then I decided to calculate the exact numbers, hoping it would reduce > tax. The cost basis was $14 and the purchase date many years ago, so > the net gain was long term of 35-14=21. But the tax increased! > It seems the reason for this is the rounding of taxes under 100k. > Is there anything that can be done about this? schedules. If that isn't feasible, write your members of Congress suggesting that they amend the law to offer the taxpayer the option to use the tax rate schedules at all income levels. -- Phil Marti Clarksburg, MD -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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#-1
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| I ran into a strange problem. There was a spin off, and about $35 was received for cash in lieu. Being lazy to look up the original purchase date and calculate the cost basis for the fractional number of shares, I just entered the purchase date as the date of the split and the cost basis as zero, for a net short term gain of $35. Then I decided to calculate the exact numbers, hoping it would reduce tax. The cost basis was $14 and the purchase date many years ago, so the net gain was long term of 35-14=21. But the tax increased! It seems the reason for this is the rounding of taxes under 100k. Consider by example: - For single filer, 50000 to 50050 has tax of 8930 - Suppose taxable income is 50050 with the $35 included in short term gains - Tax is 8930 - Now remove $35 for short term gain and add $21 to long germ gains - Short term tax is still 8930 - Add long term tax of 21*0.15 = $3 rounded And to make matters worse, in the lazy approach, the cost basis for the shares when you eventually sell them would be X. But in the exact approach, the cost basis would be X-14, thereby increasing your tax by 14*0.15 = $2 rounded. Is there anything that can be done about this? -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
| Tags |
| gain, increases, longterm, recharacterizing, shortterm, tax |
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