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| On Jan 15, 7:44 pm, Steve B <pres...[at]juno.com> wrote: - quote - > This is a about a personal debt secured by a promissory note (not > between relatives) that went into default in 2006 and was settled in > 2007 after lengthy, expensive legal negotiations. The settlement > included an initial cash payment of about 40% of the original debt, > followed by a new, 5 year promissory note for about 25% of the original > debt, with the remaining 35% uncollectible by the settlement agreement. > We are advised that this is a non-business bad debt (section 166) and > may be deductible (to the extent of the 35% uncollectible) as a > short-term capital loss. However, in reading the tax materials, > searching the tax cases and reviewing other opinions we have found that > we may not meet the requirement of "totally worthless" debt to qualify > for the deduction. The tax regulations (CFR Title 26 section > 1.166-5(a)(2)) and the frequently referenced "Buchanan vs US" case seem > to indicate that. Yet we have seen CPA postings suggesting otherwise > and have found the same in reputable references like Sidney Kess' "1040 > Preparation and Planning Guide", p.296 ¶2405 (I think). > We would greatly appreciate some clarification on this matter. In > particular, if there have been subsequent cases or regulations regarding > this matter we would greatly appreciate knowing of them so that we can > be prepared in the event of an audit in the future. We have searched > extensively the resources available to us on the 'net but can't find any > references in support of the deduction. > Thanks for any help you can provide. > Steve B. > -- You need to do your research & document your facts & circumstances with regard to the existing case law, code & regs This does sound like the type of position that needs to be disclosed. If you have sound research & doucmentation - take the deduction But just be prepared for the IRS to challenge it. <<< Benjamin Yazersky, CPA [NJ & NY] > > -----> real address on hobokeni or hobokenx <----- "This written advice was not intended or written to be used, and it cannot be used by any taxpayer, for the purpose of avoiding penalties that may be imposed on the taxpayer." (The foregoing legend has been affixed pursuant to U.S. Treasury Regulations governing tax practice.) The information transmitted is intended only for the person or entity to which it is addressed and may contain confidential and/or privileged material. Any review, retransmission, dissemination or other use of, or taking of any action in reliance upon, this information by persons or entities other than the intended recipient is prohibited. If you received this in error, please contact the sender and delete the material from any computer. -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
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| This is a about a personal debt secured by a promissory note (not between relatives) that went into default in 2006 and was settled in 2007 after lengthy, expensive legal negotiations. The settlement included an initial cash payment of about 40% of the original debt, followed by a new, 5 year promissory note for about 25% of the original debt, with the remaining 35% uncollectible by the settlement agreement. We are advised that this is a non-business bad debt (section 166) and may be deductible (to the extent of the 35% uncollectible) as a short-term capital loss. However, in reading the tax materials, searching the tax cases and reviewing other opinions we have found that we may not meet the requirement of "totally worthless" debt to qualify for the deduction. The tax regulations (CFR Title 26 section 1.166-5(a)(2)) and the frequently referenced "Buchanan vs US" case seem to indicate that. Yet we have seen CPA postings suggesting otherwise and have found the same in reputable references like Sidney Kess' "1040 Preparation and Planning Guide", p.296 ¶2405 (I think). We would greatly appreciate some clarification on this matter. In particular, if there have been subsequent cases or regulations regarding this matter we would greatly appreciate knowing of them so that we can be prepared in the event of an audit in the future. We have searched extensively the resources available to us on the 'net but can't find any references in support of the deduction. Thanks for any help you can provide. Steve B. -- << ------------------------------------------------------- > << The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, > << nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties > << that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts > << to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy > << are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2007) - All rights reserved. > << ------------------------------------------------------- > |
| Tags |
| bad, debt, deduction, nonbusiness |
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