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#9
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| - quote - > > Sale [at] 58, Basis 50
I'm apparently wrong; a call that expires is taxed> I don't think so. Here's why: > Buy the stock at 50. Sell a call at 3; it doesn't get > called. Repeat 20 times. According to you, the basis is > still 50, the (eventual) sale price is 60+actual sale price. > I don't think the IRS will wait that long. immediately (short term, too). I should have figured that; the correct question to ask is "which interpretation maximizes taxes?" Seth << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2006) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#8
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| - quote - > > Sale [at] 58, Basis 50
You are incorrect. Basis is $50, proceeds are $58. See IRS> I don't think so. Pub 550. - quote - > Buy the stock at 50. Sell a call at 3; it doesn't get
No, you're wrong. The premium only gets added to proceeds> called. Repeat 20 times. According to you, the basis is > still 50, the (eventual) sale price is 60+actual sale price. when the option is exercised. If it expires worthless, it is a standalone transaction. So in your example, each of those times you sell a call that doesn't get exercised the following appears on your sched D in the short-term section: Description Sale Date Proceeds Acq. Date Basis Gain XYZ Call M/D/Y $300 EXPIRED $0 $300 But when a call finally is exercised against the stock you're holding, *then* the option ceases to have an independent existance and the premium gets added to the stocks proceeds as previously discussed. - quote - > I don't think the IRS will wait that long.
See above, you don't have to.- quote - > If you've held the stock long-term, all the option sales are
Incorrect. They are all SHORT-TERM gains, except for the> also long-term capital gains. sale that sends with the option being exercised and calling away your stock. -- Rich Carreiro rlcarr[at]animato.arlington.ma.us << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2006) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#7
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| "704set" <704set[at]anywhereyouwant.com> wrote: - quote - > When a covered call option is exercised on a stock, how is
OK who is right? Dcaro or Joetaxpayer?> this reported. I know it becomes part of the cost basis. > So what do you do? Reduce the cost basis of the stock by > the sale price of the option when reporting it on the Sched. > D? > Example: > Buy 100 XYZ [at] 50 > Sell 1 call [at] 3 with a strike price of 55. > The stock is called at 55. So is the cost basis reported on > Sched. D at 47 with a sale at 55? 704set Moderator: Joe has acknowledged that he was incorrect. << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2006) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#6
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| joetaxpayer wrote: - quote - > 704set wrote:
Update - sorry, I was wrong to agree - see pub 550 at> > When a covered call option is exercised on a stock, how is > > this reported. I know it becomes part of the cost basis. > > So what do you do? Reduce the cost basis of the stock by > > the sale price of the option when reporting it on the Sched. > > D? > > > Example: > > > Buy 100 XYZ [at] 50 > > Sell 1 call [at] 3 with a strike price of 55. > > > The stock is called at 55. So is the cost basis reported on > > Sched. D at 47 with a sale at 55? > You got it, exactly. irs.gov for the answer; If a call you write is exercised and you sell the underlying stock, increase your amount realized on the sale of the stock by the amount you received for the call when figuring your gain or loss. The gain or loss is long term or short depending on your holding period of the stock. (so basis stays $50, but sale is $58) JOE << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2006) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#5
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| wrote: - quote - > Sale [at] 58, Basis 50
I don't think so. Here's why:Buy the stock at 50. Sell a call at 3; it doesn't get called. Repeat 20 times. According to you, the basis is still 50, the (eventual) sale price is 60+actual sale price. I don't think the IRS will wait that long. If you reduce the basis, then once it has been reduced to 0, any further option sales produce capital gain. So the first 16 reduce the basis to $2; the next one reduces it to $0 and produces $1 capital gain (similar to a "return of capital dividend"). If you've held the stock long-term, all the option sales are also long-term capital gains. Seth << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2006) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#4
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| "704set" <704set[at]anywhereyouwant.com> wrote: - quote - > When a covered call option is exercised on a stock, how is
OK who is right? Dcaro or Joetaxpayer?> this reported. I know it becomes part of the cost basis. > So what do you do? Reduce the cost basis of the stock by > the sale price of the option when reporting it on the Sched. > D? > Example: > Buy 100 XYZ [at] 50 > Sell 1 call [at] 3 with a strike price of 55. > The stock is called at 55. So is the cost basis reported on > Sched. D at 47 with a sale at 55? 704set Moderator: Joe has acknowledged that he was incorrect. << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2006) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#3
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| joetaxpayer wrote: - quote - > 704set wrote:
Update - sorry, I was wrong to agree - see pub 550 at> > When a covered call option is exercised on a stock, how is > > this reported. I know it becomes part of the cost basis. > > So what do you do? Reduce the cost basis of the stock by > > the sale price of the option when reporting it on the Sched. > > D? > > > Example: > > > Buy 100 XYZ [at] 50 > > Sell 1 call [at] 3 with a strike price of 55. > > > The stock is called at 55. So is the cost basis reported on > > Sched. D at 47 with a sale at 55? > You got it, exactly. irs.gov for the answer; If a call you write is exercised and you sell the underlying stock, increase your amount realized on the sale of the stock by the amount you received for the call when figuring your gain or loss. The gain or loss is long term or short depending on your holding period of the stock. (so basis stays $50, but sale is $58) JOE << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2006) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#2
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| wrote: - quote - > Sale [at] 58, Basis 50
I don't think so. Here's why:Buy the stock at 50. Sell a call at 3; it doesn't get called. Repeat 20 times. According to you, the basis is still 50, the (eventual) sale price is 60+actual sale price. I don't think the IRS will wait that long. If you reduce the basis, then once it has been reduced to 0, any further option sales produce capital gain. So the first 16 reduce the basis to $2; the next one reduces it to $0 and produces $1 capital gain (similar to a "return of capital dividend"). If you've held the stock long-term, all the option sales are also long-term capital gains. Seth << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2006) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#1
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| 704set wrote: - quote - > When a covered call option is exercised on a stock, how is
You got it, exactly.> this reported. I know it becomes part of the cost basis. > So what do you do? Reduce the cost basis of the stock by > the sale price of the option when reporting it on the Sched. > D? > Example: > Buy 100 XYZ [at] 50 > Sell 1 call [at] 3 with a strike price of 55. > The stock is called at 55. So is the cost basis reported on > Sched. D at 47 with a sale at 55? JOE << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2006) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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| Sale [at] 58, Basis 50 << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2006) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#-1
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| When a covered call option is exercised on a stock, how is this reported. I know it becomes part of the cost basis. So what do you do? Reduce the cost basis of the stock by the sale price of the option when reporting it on the Sched. D? Example: Buy 100 XYZ [at] 50 Sell 1 call [at] 3 with a strike price of 55. The stock is called at 55. So is the cost basis reported on Sched. D at 47 with a sale at 55? Thanks, 704set << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2006) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
| Tags |
| basis, cost, exercise, option |
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