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#3
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| "Kate" <creneau202[at]comcast.net> wrote: - quote - > This response seems a bit odd to me as the HOA is a
If the HOA does not own the property, it cannot donate it.> corporation that is not a passthrough entity. Yes, the > common area is owned ratably by its members through deeded > membership in the HOA and the corporation is owned by its > members. The HOA is apparently a taxable entity who can make > an election for a special tax treatment as a homeowners > association. Since net revenue/loss for the year is not > passed through to the association members and taxed on their > returns, how is it possible that a charitable donation could > be passed through? > Am I missing something here? The member of the HOA must each donate their share. << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#2
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| Kate wrote: - quote - > Since net revenue/loss for the year is not
It is probably the HOMEOWNERS who have donated the property,> passed through to the association members and taxed on their > returns, how is it possible that a charitable donation could > be passed through? not the HOA. The HOA is simply operating as the homeowners' "agent." If the homeowners can figure some way to allocate a portion of their basis to the property that was given up, then I think they could potentially claim a charitable contribution for same. Note that the charitable donation is NOT "passed through" the HOA. It was never the HOA's in the first place. MTW << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#1
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| This response seems a bit odd to me as the HOA is a corporation that is not a passthrough entity. Yes, the common area is owned ratably by its members through deeded membership in the HOA and the corporation is owned by its members. The HOA is apparently a taxable entity who can make an election for a special tax treatment as a homeowners association. Since net revenue/loss for the year is not passed through to the association members and taxed on their returns, how is it possible that a charitable donation could be passed through? Am I missing something here? << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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| Kate wrote: - quote - > Is there any tax consequence to this transaction
In my state (WA) HOAs typically don't own anything. Rather,> either in tax cost or tax benefit? > My initial thinking is "no". What is yours? the "common area" is owned pro rata by the homeowners. Thus, is there a possibility of a charitable contribution deduction that could be allocated ratably among the homeowners ??? (I don't know for sure; I'm simply providing food for thought.) MTW << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#-1
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| An HOA in Colorado had an old house as part of the common property. The City agreed to take ownership of the old house and it was subsequently subdivided/partioned from the HOA common property. Question: the HOA has no cost basis in the property and is not being relieved of any obligations nor receiving any consideration (cash or otherwise) in this transaction. The City wants the old property for historical preservation purposes. Is there any tax consequence to this transaction either in tax cost or tax benefit? My initial thinking is "no". What is yours? << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
| Tags |
| benefit, hoa, property, real, tax, transfer |
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