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| "kw" <kwdrums[at]aol.com> wrote: - quote - > I have heard that estate tax paid on the value of an
It's all irrelevant as estate tax paid has no bearing on an> investment can be added to that investment's basis. Is this > true? I cannot find anything in print; either to verify or > deny. > I have a client who inherited a sizable portfolio of > muni-bonds from a decedant's estate. The estate paid nearly > 800K in tax (form 706) based on the value of those bonds at > death. > Adding a pro-rata portion to each bond's basis would create > a sizable capital loss upon sale. Over time, once all the > investments had been sold, I presume you would recoup the > 800K. > Does this seem correct? Or am I way off base here? asset's basis. The fact that you cannot find anything to verify your assertion SHOULD have been a good indicator that no such thing exists. -- David M. Woods, EA, ChFC, CLU Woods Financial Services Norwood, MA 02062 www.woods-financial.com << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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| kw wrote: - quote - > I have heard that estate tax paid on the value of an
False. However, as the other reply stated, GIFT TAX is> investment can be added to that investment's basis. Is this > true? I cannot find anything in print; either to verify or > deny. added, but with a gift, there's no step-up to FMV. - quote - > I have a client who inherited a sizable portfolio of
Way off.> muni-bonds from a decedant's estate. The estate paid nearly > 800K in tax (form 706) based on the value of those bonds at > death. > Adding a pro-rata portion to each bond's basis would create > a sizable capital loss upon sale. Over time, once all the > investments had been sold, I presume you would recoup the > 800K. > Does this seem correct? Or am I way off base here? However, there is one way that an addition to basis besides the estate tax's value of the assets might occur: If the estate cannot pay its tax (i.e. no liquid assets) and a beneficiary loans the estate the funds to pay the tax - AND that beneficiary doesn't receive any property he wasn't already entitled to and no excess property exists, then the loan amount might be capitalizable into the assets received (instead of bad debt treatment). However, I don't believe that this has ever been tested before the Tax Court. The implication is that the amount loaned was necessary to obtain clear title to the property and to clear off the automatic implied estate tax lien that attaches at death. Lots of "if's" here. In your case, since the estate was able to pay its tax, this wouldn't apply. << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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| "kw" <kwdrums[at]aol.com> wrote: - quote - > I have heard that estate tax paid on the value of an
There is no such rule for estate tax. Part of the *Gift* tax> investment can be added to that investment's basis. Is this > true? I cannot find anything in print; either to verify or > deny. > I have a client who inherited a sizable portfolio of > muni-bonds from a decedant's estate. The estate paid nearly > 800K in tax (form 706) based on the value of those bonds at > death. > Adding a pro-rata portion to each bond's basis would create > a sizable capital loss upon sale. Over time, once all the > investments had been sold, I presume you would recoup the > 800K. > Does this seem correct? Or am I way off base here? paid on *gifts* of appreciated property is added to basis under Tax Code Section 1015(d). The amount to add is: tax * [(FMV-Old Basis)/FMV]. Also, there is an itemized income tax deduction for estate tax paid on assets that don't get a new basis at death, such as retirement plans and other "income in respect of a decedent." But if the bonds got a "value at death" basis, then that's the basis to use if they are sold. Bob Daniels ("There's no luggage rack on a hearse, and no pockets on a shroud." - 'G) << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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| I have heard that estate tax paid on the value of an investment can be added to that investment's basis. Is this true? I cannot find anything in print; either to verify or deny. I have a client who inherited a sizable portfolio of muni-bonds from a decedant's estate. The estate paid nearly 800K in tax (form 706) based on the value of those bonds at death. Adding a pro-rata portion to each bond's basis would create a sizable capital loss upon sale. Over time, once all the investments had been sold, I presume you would recoup the 800K. Does this seem correct? Or am I way off base here? Thanks, KW << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
| Tags |
| added, basis, estate, tax |
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