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#84
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| "D. Stussy" wrote: - quote - > shouldn't jump to the conclusion that Oprah's organization
There's no way that Oprah can cause GM to furnish cars and> is automatically right just because they have treated it one > way - the way that is in THEIR BEST INTEREST (i.e. no tax > liability to them - and in fact maybe even a writeoff). get a write-off. Explain how Form 1120 would show that and still balance. Do we even know who issued the 1099s? Fred F. Moderator: This thread is OFFICIALLY closed <period> . << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#83
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| TaxSrv wrote: - quote - > "D. Stussy" wrote:
My point: I recognize that there's a missing element before> > They just don't want to be stuck with the $25/person-year > > limitation, so they simply CALL it something else to write > > off the entire cost. > Oh my. Even if GM _had_ positive taxable income, they > wouldn't care one whit about a deduction limit on a small > advertising expenditure like this. It had to be more cost > effective than their regular advertising methods for the > same amount of money, due to Oprah in the mix and > anticipated media attention. > You keep citing Code/Regs, but case law should have clearer > guidance. Cites with analysis, please. one can call it a prize or award outright. These recipients shouldn't jump to the conclusion that Oprah's organization is automatically right just because they have treated it one way - the way that is in THEIR BEST INTEREST (i.e. no tax liability to them - and in fact maybe even a writeoff). It may very well be that if the issue were to come before the courts, it may be ruled a prize and not a gift. However, my view is that such a ruling would be NECESSARY because the facts and circumstances, to me, indicate a different outcome. << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#82
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| Stuart A. Bronstein wrote: - quote - > "D. Stussy" <kd6lvw[at]bde-arc.ampr.org> wrote:
But it was still left on the books. Treasury never withdrew> > Stuart A. Bronstein wrote: > > > If your definition were the correct one, the Nobel Prize > > > would be an income tax free gift to the recipients. There > > > used to be a specific exclusion in the law for that kind of > > > prize, in fact, but no longer. > > You will find that the specific exclusion for the nobel > > prize (and prizes of merit) is still in a published TR that > > hasn't been rescinded.... > Section 74 was amended to make taxable such awards if not > transferred to charity in 1986. > Reg. 1.74-1(b) was apparently enacted prior to the changes > in section 74(b) since it does not acknowledge the > additional requirement that, to be excluded, "(3) the prize > or award is transferred by the payor to a governmental unit > or organization described in paragraph (1) or (2) of section > 170(c) pursuant to a designation made by the recipient." > Since statutes always take precedence over regulations, the > regulation to which you refer is now inconsistent with the > statute and, to that extent, irrelevant. it - despite the change. So much for "official guidance." However, it makes a nice out from the understatement/negligence penalty should anyone decide to take the position. :-) - quote - > ... [deleted]
<< ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== >
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#81
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| Stuart A. Bronstein wrote: - quote - > "D. Stussy" <kd6lvw[at]bde-arc.ampr.org> wrote:
I agree that it doesn't mandate that outcome - but it> > TaxSrv wrote: > > > Nowhere in the Code or Regs is a gift defined as including a > > > listing of necessary elements. I believe all that's there > > > is that it's an objective facts and circumstances test > > > concerning the nature and purpose of the transfer.... > > And neither does a prize or award have a definition in the > > Code. > The code specifies that prizes and awards are taxable unless > they are "primarily in recognition of religious, charitable, > scientific, educational, artistic, literary, or civic > achievement" and meet further requirements as well. > If they are in recognition of anything at all, that will > detract from the requirement of gifts that they be from > disinterested generosity. > > However, there's still a difference between these > > terms. In general, a prize requires an affirmative act > > (e.g. entering a competition, performing some meritorious > > act, etc.) while a gift does not. > Agreed. But that doesn't mean that anything given that's > not in exchange for some meritorious act must therefore be a > tax-free gift. doesn't forbid it either. The primary fact is that these recipients didn't do anything on their own accord to qualify. To me, that was the determining factor and it sounds like a gift, not a prize or award. Treatment by the issuing party is governed by this - not the other way around. I don't think we're going to have an agreement. Unless Oprah or one of the other donor parties involved has a PLR that states otherwise, I stand by my position that her side's tax treatment of the transactions related to this transfer appears wrong on its face. - quote - > > > ... Between
I was simply tring to consider all possibilities.> > > GM and Oprah, Inc. or whatever it's called, there's so much > > > business purpose agenda to what occurred to make a gift > > > argument weak in the general sense. > > They just don't want to be stuck with the $25/person-year > > limitation, so they simply CALL it something else to write > > off the entire cost. > Because it still doesn't fit the definition of gift as > having been given from disinterested generosity or > affection, which, to me, implies that the business gift, to > qualify as such, would have to be to someone already a > client or, at least, someone personally known to the seller > and who the seller believes could become a client. That > doesn't apply in this case. << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#80
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| The timing issue is one of constructive receipt (see Reg. 1.451-2; there are also some rev ruls and some cases that might apply). If the payor mails the check at year-end, and under the usual post-office practices the check would not be expected to reach the payee until the new year, then the payee (if s/he is on the cash basis method) would not "receive" the payment for income tax purposes until the new year. A further wrinkle is the degree to which the payor's administrative practices factor in - it may be that the payor's practice is to write the check on day 1 (and date it accordingly) but to not actually mail the check until day x, a few days later. In that case, the payee's receipt of the payment is, arguably, still subject to substantial restrictions (i.e., the payor's usual administrative practices), and would therefore not have receipt during the delay either. Looking at the cases, it seems that the IRS has given up being persnikkety about receipt of checks which spend New Year's Eve in the custody of the Post Office unless there are other indicia of monkey business (e.g., the payee tells the payor on Dec. 1 to hold onto the check and not mail it until Dec. 31). On that basis, reporting the income in the year of receipt was a perfectly reasonable reporting position, notwithstanding the date of the check or the 1099. The payor, however, would generally be entitled to take the deduction for the payment in the earlier year - putting the check in the mail should constitute economic performance on their part, thus allowing the deduction. << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#79
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| "D. Stussy" wrote: - quote - > They just don't want to be stuck with the $25/person-year
Oh my. Even if GM _had_ positive taxable income, they> limitation, so they simply CALL it something else to write > off the entire cost. wouldn't care one whit about a deduction limit on a small advertising expenditure like this. It had to be more cost effective than their regular advertising methods for the same amount of money, due to Oprah in the mix and anticipated media attention. You keep citing Code/Regs, but case law should have clearer guidance. Cites with analysis, please. Fred F. << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#78
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| "D. Stussy" <kd6lvw[at]bde-arc.ampr.org> wrote: - quote - > TaxSrv wrote:
The code specifies that prizes and awards are taxable unless> > Nowhere in the Code or Regs is a gift defined as including a > > listing of necessary elements. I believe all that's there > > is that it's an objective facts and circumstances test > > concerning the nature and purpose of the transfer.... > And neither does a prize or award have a definition in the > Code. they are "primarily in recognition of religious, charitable, scientific, educational, artistic, literary, or civic achievement" and meet further requirements as well. If they are in recognition of anything at all, that will detract from the requirement of gifts that they be from disinterested generosity. - quote - > However, there's still a difference between these
Agreed. But that doesn't mean that anything given that's> terms. In general, a prize requires an affirmative act > (e.g. entering a competition, performing some meritorious > act, etc.) while a gift does not. not in exchange for some meritorious act must therefore be a tax-free gift. - quote - > > ... Between
Because it still doesn't fit the definition of gift as> > GM and Oprah, Inc. or whatever it's called, there's so much > > business purpose agenda to what occurred to make a gift > > argument weak in the general sense. > They just don't want to be stuck with the $25/person-year > limitation, so they simply CALL it something else to write > off the entire cost. having been given from disinterested generosity or affection, which, to me, implies that the business gift, to qualify as such, would have to be to someone already a client or, at least, someone personally known to the seller and who the seller believes could become a client. That doesn't apply in this case. Stu << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#77
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| "D. Stussy" <kd6lvw[at]bde-arc.ampr.org> wrote: - quote - > Stuart A. Bronstein wrote:
Section 74 was amended to make taxable such awards if not> > If your definition were the correct one, the Nobel Prize > > would be an income tax free gift to the recipients. There > > used to be a specific exclusion in the law for that kind of > > prize, in fact, but no longer. > You will find that the specific exclusion for the nobel > prize (and prizes of merit) is still in a published TR that > hasn't been rescinded.... transferred to charity in 1986. Reg. 1.74-1(b) was apparently enacted prior to the changes in section 74(b) since it does not acknowledge the additional requirement that, to be excluded, "(3) the prize or award is transferred by the payor to a governmental unit or organization described in paragraph (1) or (2) of section 170(c) pursuant to a designation made by the recipient." Since statutes always take precedence over regulations, the regulation to which you refer is now inconsistent with the statute and, to that extent, irrelevant. - quote - > IF as you say, it's a "gift for business purposes", then
That would, in my opinion, be a better way to attack the> there's only going to be a $25 deduction per car given in > this case... That also isn't consistent with that which was > done. deductibility of the transaction for the transferor. But since those receiving the cars were not necessarily already customers of the donor, it is unlikely that they would be classified as gifts even for that purpose. Stu << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#76
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| TaxSrv wrote: - quote - > "D. Stussy" wrote:
And neither does a prize or award have a definition in the> > The law is clear on that: Gifts are not income taxable to > > the recipient. I don't see all the elements present > > necessary to classify this as a prize/award, but I do see > > all the elements necessary to call it a gift (to the extent > > that the latter is even defined in the IRC/TR). > > > I don't see any ambiguity when a required characteristic is > > absent.... > Nowhere in the Code or Regs is a gift defined as including a > listing of necessary elements. I believe all that's there > is that it's an objective facts and circumstances test > concerning the nature and purpose of the transfer.... Code. However, there's still a difference between these terms. In general, a prize requires an affirmative act (e.g. entering a competition, performing some meritorious act, etc.) while a gift does not. However, I see NO affirmative action in this situation, so I asked "Why is this a prize and not a gift? I see a gift." The recipients did nothing to qualify nor do they have any obligation [to Oprah or any co-donor], present or future. - quote - > ... Between
They just don't want to be stuck with the $25/person-year> GM and Oprah, Inc. or whatever it's called, there's so much > business purpose agenda to what occurred to make a gift > argument weak in the general sense. The fact that Oprah has > made many millions by fostering a certain adorable image of > herself pegs the chances of litigation success at around one > over infinity, at least in my view. limitation, so they simply CALL it something else to write off the entire cost. Can you say, "Tax shelter opinion"? Sounds like the same loose playing with the rules as some of those.... << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#75
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| Stuart A. Bronstein wrote: - quote - > "D. Stussy" <kd6lvw[at]bde-arc.ampr.org> wrote:
You will find that the specific exclusion for the nobel> > Stuart A. Bronstein wrote: > > > "D. Stussy" <kd6lvw[at]bde-arc.ampr.org> wrote: > > > > Since you all feel that I am wrong, identify the action that > > > > these recipients performed under their OWN INITIATIVE which > > > > qualified it as a prize or award. I don't see any. > > > Because it's not a requirement. > > Then how do you define a GIFT differently from this > > prize/award? > According to the courts, a gift is something given from > detached generosity, not dependent on anything the donee may > have done or may do in the future, and unrelated to any > other purpose. > In this case the gifts were clearly given for business > purposes. They were treated that way by the donors (which is > not, as you say, a requirement, but does show the donor's > intent, which is the primary criterion). > If your definition were the correct one, the Nobel Prize > would be an income tax free gift to the recipients. There > used to be a specific exclusion in the law for that kind of > prize, in fact, but no longer. prize (and prizes of merit) is still in a published TR that hasn't been rescinded.... IF as you say, it's a "gift for business purposes", then there's only going to be a $25 deduction per car given in this case... That also isn't consistent with that which was done. << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#74
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| "D. Stussy" wrote: - quote - > The law is clear on that: Gifts are not income taxable to
Nowhere in the Code or Regs is a gift defined as including a> the recipient. I don't see all the elements present > necessary to classify this as a prize/award, but I do see > all the elements necessary to call it a gift (to the extent > that the latter is even defined in the IRC/TR). > I don't see any ambiguity when a required characteristic is > absent.... listing of necessary elements. I believe all that's there is that it's an objective facts and circumstances test concerning the nature and purpose of the transfer. Between GM and Oprah, Inc. or whatever it's called, there's so much business purpose agenda to what occurred to make a gift argument weak in the general sense. The fact that Oprah has made many millions by fostering a certain adorable image of herself pegs the chances of litigation success at around one over infinity, at least in my view. Fred F. << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#73
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| "D. Stussy" <kd6lvw[at]bde-arc.ampr.org> wrote: - quote - > Stuart A. Bronstein wrote:
According to the courts, a gift is something given from> > "D. Stussy" <kd6lvw[at]bde-arc.ampr.org> wrote: > > > Since you all feel that I am wrong, identify the action that > > > these recipients performed under their OWN INITIATIVE which > > > qualified it as a prize or award. I don't see any. > > Because it's not a requirement. > Then how do you define a GIFT differently from this > prize/award? detached generosity, not dependent on anything the donee may have done or may do in the future, and unrelated to any other purpose. In this case the gifts were clearly given for business purposes. They were treated that way by the donors (which is not, as you say, a requirement, but does show the donor's intent, which is the primary criterion). If your definition were the correct one, the Nobel Prize would be an income tax free gift to the recipients. There used to be a specific exclusion in the law for that kind of prize, in fact, but no longer. Stu << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#72
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| Harlan Lunsford wrote: - quote - > D. Stussy wrote:
The law is clear on that: Gifts are not income taxable to> > Harlan Lunsford wrote: > > > Dick Adams wrote: > > > > "D. Stussy" <kd6lvw[at]bde-arc.ampr.org> wrote: > > > > > I still don't see that what the parties involved actually > > > > > did as their tax treatments of the event is necessarily what > > > > > they SHOULD HAVE DONE. What they actually did is the > > > > > "option" (to the extent there was even a choice) to mimimize > > > > > their own tax impact but not necessarily correct under the > > > > > law. The IRS needs to audit this transaction. > > > > I am an Auditor, albeit not for the IRS. The general rule is > > > > that when an unrelated third party transfers an asset directly > > > > to an individual and deducts the asset transferred from their > > > > revenue for tax purposes, the recipient has a taxable event > > > > regardless of whatever the recipient believes. > > > When I taught ACC 101, and enumerated the "principles of accounting", > > > there were a few more I always added, sort of like the 11th and 12th > > > commandments. # 11 was "One man's debit is another man's credit." > > > > > (Oh, and # 12 was: You WILL be in balance! > > So, you're saying that this event is taxable solely because > > Oprah deducted it? > > > I always thought it was the facts and circumstances of an > > event that determined its tax treatment; not the other way > > around. > Then you thought wrong. Sometimes facts and circumstances don't > matter; it's just a matter of what the tax law actually says. > Facts and circumstances come into play where there may be some > ambiguity. And it seems in this case there is not only ambiguity, > but lack of knowledge among our participants as to just what did > actually happen. If only we had access to the opinions of the > Oprah show's legal counsel given BEFORE everything took place, > might we have a better understanding. the recipient. I don't see all the elements present necessary to classify this as a prize/award, but I do see all the elements necessary to call it a gift (to the extent that the latter is even defined in the IRC/TR). I don't see any ambiguity when a required characteristic is absent.... << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#71
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| Stuart A. Bronstein wrote: - quote - > "D. Stussy" <kd6lvw[at]bde-arc.ampr.org> wrote:
Then how do you define a GIFT differently from this> > Stuart A. Bronstein wrote: > > > The reason it's important is that the primary issue the > > > courts use to determine if something is technically a gift or > > > something else is the donor's intent. In this case the donor's > > > intent, as stated by Oprah's company, was that it deduct the > > > cost of the cars and that the recipients be taxed on the income > > > from receipt of the cars. > > That's not intent. That's the RESULT of calling it a prize. > It's called evidence. You can never truly know someone's intent. > All you can do is to look at what they actually do and infer. > > These recipients were selected WITHOUT ANY ACTIONS ON THEIR > > PART, nor do they have any future obligation to the donor > > for having received the item. - cf 1.74-1(b) conditions 2 & > > 3 for exclusion from gross income of certain prizes > > (although I will grant that condition 1 isn't met); nor were > > they selected based on some prior action of merit (i.e. a > > past achievement). > You're living in the past. That was the rule in the old days > in some cases, such as the Nobel Prize. The people who win > that don't do anything for it, don't enter, don't even know > they're up for it until it happens. They used not to pay > taxes on their winning, but these days they do. > > Since you all feel that I am wrong, identify the action that > > these recipients performed under their OWN INITIATIVE which > > qualified it as a prize or award. I don't see any. > Because it's not a requirement. prize/award? << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#70
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| D. Stussy wrote: - quote - > Harlan Lunsford wrote:
Then you thought wrong. Sometimes facts and circumstances don't> > Dick Adams wrote: > > > "D. Stussy" <kd6lvw[at]bde-arc.ampr.org> wrote: > > > > I still don't see that what the parties involved actually > > > > did as their tax treatments of the event is necessarily what > > > > they SHOULD HAVE DONE. What they actually did is the > > > > "option" (to the extent there was even a choice) to mimimize > > > > their own tax impact but not necessarily correct under the > > > > law. The IRS needs to audit this transaction. > > > I am an Auditor, albeit not for the IRS. The general rule is > > > that when an unrelated third party transfers an asset directly > > > to an individual and deducts the asset transferred from their > > > revenue for tax purposes, the recipient has a taxable event > > > regardless of whatever the recipient believes. > > When I taught ACC 101, and enumerated the "principles of accounting", > > there were a few more I always added, sort of like the 11th and 12th > > commandments. # 11 was "One man's debit is another man's credit." > > > (Oh, and # 12 was: You WILL be in balance! > So, you're saying that this event is taxable solely because > Oprah deducted it? > I always thought it was the facts and circumstances of an > event that determined its tax treatment; not the other way > around. matter; it's just a matter of what the tax law actually says. Facts and circumstances come into play where there may be some ambiguity. And it seems in this case there is not only ambiguity, but lack of knowledge among our participants as to just what did actually happen. If only we had access to the opinions of the Oprah show's legal counsel given BEFORE everything took place, might we have a better understanding. ChEAr$, Harlan Lunsford, EA n LA << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#69
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| "D. Stussy" <kd6lvw[at]bde-arc.ampr.org> wrote: - quote - > Stuart A. Bronstein wrote:
It's called evidence. You can never truly know someone's intent.> > The reason it's important is that the primary issue the > > courts use to determine if something is technically a gift or > > something else is the donor's intent. In this case the donor's > > intent, as stated by Oprah's company, was that it deduct the > > cost of the cars and that the recipients be taxed on the income > > from receipt of the cars. > That's not intent. That's the RESULT of calling it a prize. All you can do is to look at what they actually do and infer. - quote - > These recipients were selected WITHOUT ANY ACTIONS ON THEIR
You're living in the past. That was the rule in the old days> PART, nor do they have any future obligation to the donor > for having received the item. - cf 1.74-1(b) conditions 2 & > 3 for exclusion from gross income of certain prizes > (although I will grant that condition 1 isn't met); nor were > they selected based on some prior action of merit (i.e. a > past achievement). in some cases, such as the Nobel Prize. The people who win that don't do anything for it, don't enter, don't even know they're up for it until it happens. They used not to pay taxes on their winning, but these days they do. - quote - > Since you all feel that I am wrong, identify the action that
Because it's not a requirement.> these recipients performed under their OWN INITIATIVE which > qualified it as a prize or award. I don't see any. Stu Moderator: Welcome to "Tax Wars". The rules are simple: You must carry off your dead and clean up the blood, name calling is verboten, as are slogans such as "Death to the infidels", and you may not mock opponents for illiteracy ignorance, or political affiliation. These are precedents and that means you, but not I, are bound by them. rotflmao << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#68
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| D. Stussy <kd6lvw[at]kd6lvw.ampr.org> wrote: - quote - > .....
The tax treatment by the donor creates a rebuttable presumption> Utter BS. The tax treatment by the donor has no bearing on > what the correct tax treatment under the law is. of the correct tax treatment. The late Elvis Presley was noted for giving cars away to strangers. He treated them as gifts and did not issue a 1099. Thus, they were gifts. Oprah's company issued 1099's. Any recipient is entitled to challenge the validity of the 1099. If a recipient did so, it is an almost certainty that the challenge would be reject at all administrative levels of the IRS and, if pursued, would wind up in Tax Court. Perhaps you could locate a recipient interested in challenging the 1099 and represent them to prove your hypothesis. In the absence of the success of such a challenge, it is a taxable event for the recipient. Dick << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#67
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| Harlan Lunsford wrote: - quote - > Dick Adams wrote:
So, you're saying that this event is taxable solely because> > "D. Stussy" <kd6lvw[at]bde-arc.ampr.org> wrote: > > > I still don't see that what the parties involved actually > > > did as their tax treatments of the event is necessarily what > > > they SHOULD HAVE DONE. What they actually did is the > > > "option" (to the extent there was even a choice) to mimimize > > > their own tax impact but not necessarily correct under the > > > law. The IRS needs to audit this transaction. > > I am an Auditor, albeit not for the IRS. The general rule is > > that when an unrelated third party transfers an asset directly > > to an individual and deducts the asset transferred from their > > revenue for tax purposes, the recipient has a taxable event > > regardless of whatever the recipient believes. > When I taught ACC 101, and enumerated the "principles of accounting", > there were a few more I always added, sort of like the 11th and 12th > commandments. # 11 was "One man's debit is another man's credit." > (Oh, and # 12 was: You WILL be in balance! Oprah deducted it? I always thought it was the facts and circumstances of an event that determined its tax treatment; not the other way around. << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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#66
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| Stuart A. Bronstein wrote: - quote - > "D. Stussy" <kd6lvw[at]bde-arc.ampr.org> wrote:
That's not intent. That's the RESULT of calling it a prize.> > I still don't see that what the parties involved actually > > did as their tax treatments of the event is necessarily what > > they SHOULD HAVE DONE. What they actually did is the > > "option" (to the extent there was even a choice) to mimimize > > their own tax impact but not necessarily correct under the > > law. The IRS needs to audit this transaction. > The reason it's important is that the primary issue the courts use > to determine if something is technically a gift or something else > is the donor's intent. In this case the donor's intent, as stated > by Oprah's company, was that it deduct the cost of the cars and > that the recipients be taxed on the income from receipt of the > cars. Although not limited to those things enumerated, TR 1-74.1 does list some things that ARE prizes and awards: "Radio and television GIVEAWAY shows (i.e. game shows), door prizes, and awards in contests ...." These people did not compete nor did they perform any action to initiate their presence at the show where they received the car. They went because they received an invitation - initiated by OTHERS - their friends and/or relatives who wrote in - who are not deemed to be their attorneys, agents, or other legal substitute for these people themselves; i.e. they did NOTHING themselves to qualify themselves. These recipients were selected WITHOUT ANY ACTIONS ON THEIR PART, nor do they have any future obligation to the donor for having received the item. - cf 1.74-1(b) conditions 2 & 3 for exclusion from gross income of certain prizes (although I will grant that condition 1 isn't met); nor were they selected based on some prior action of merit (i.e. a past achievement). I conclude that in order to call it a prize, these people must have done (including initiated an action to qualify) something THEMSELVES in order to be selected as recipients. That element is MISSING. Therefore, the transfer of these vehicles to the recipients is not a prize or award. These transactions are gifts - within the meaning of IRC 102(a). Since you all feel that I am wrong, identify the action that these recipients performed under their OWN INITIATIVE which qualified it as a prize or award. I don't see any. << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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| Dick Adams wrote: - quote - > "D. Stussy" <kd6lvw[at]bde-arc.ampr.org> wrote:
Utter BS. The tax treatment by the donor has no bearing on> > I still don't see that what the parties involved actually > > did as their tax treatments of the event is necessarily what > > they SHOULD HAVE DONE. What they actually did is the > > "option" (to the extent there was even a choice) to mimimize > > their own tax impact but not necessarily correct under the > > law. The IRS needs to audit this transaction. > I am an Auditor, albeit not for the IRS. The general rule is > that when an unrelated third party transfers an asset directly > to an individual and deducts the asset transferred from their > revenue for tax purposes, the recipient has a taxable event > regardless of whatever the recipient believes. what the correct tax treatment under the law is. The treatment is the RESULT of applying the law to the facts of the transaction, not the other way around. What you have is a transfer of ownership of an asset. An auditor's job is the verify the correct treatment of that transfer. The actual treatment by the audited cannot play a part in the determination of correctness of the treatment. It only comes into relevance in identifying any corrective action should it be found that the actual treatment was not the correct treatment. << ================================================== ===== > << The foregoing is intended for educational purposes only > << and does NOT constitute legal OR professional advice. > << > << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org. > << Copyright (2005) - All rights reserved. > << ================================================== ===== > |
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