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| "Tom Chandel" <tomchandNS[at]gwi.net> wrote: - quote - > Hope everyone is having a great tax season, and remember to
The creation of the joint tenancy in real estate is a> write your senators and congressmen thanking them for Tax > Simplification! > I have an issue that appears from time to time in various > forms, and would like to run it by the group here. > We all know that a gift keeps the basis of the donor > (usually), whereas an inheritance usually acquires the FMV > as of the DOD or alternate date. > So, how do we treat property that was transferred to joint > tenancy during the grantor's lifetime? > Facts: > TP's parents transferred parents' house from husband and > wife ownership to "joint tenants and not tenants in common" > with themselves and their children (TP and siblings). > Shortly after this was done the father dies. Mother lives in > the house for about a year or so and goes into a nursing > home and passes away after about 6 months. > The state now looks at the deed to their property. signs off > on the property at that point (I didn't know they did that > kind of thing), and then the kids (TP and siblings) sell the > property (say for 300K). The property in the hands of the > parents had a very low basis (say 50K). > What is the basis and gain to the kids? completed gift for federal gift tax purposes. Since the value of the property was way less than the parents gift tax exemption, no gift tax would be owing, assuming that they have not made other taxable gifts during their lifetimes and used up their exemption. When father died, the property was back in his estate in proportion to the amount of consideration he supplied for the purchase of the property. You don't say whether this is a separate property or community property state. If it was a separate property state and daddy provided all of the consideration for the initial purchase, 100% is back in his taxable estate and would get a step up in basis to fair market value as of the date of dad's death. If a community property state, 50% is back. When Mom subsequently died, nothing would be in her estate if dad provided all the consideration; 50% would be in her estate if community property was used. So, the answer to your question is that the basis (at least for federal purposes) is either 100% of the fair market value of the property at the date of dad's death or 50% step up at his death and 50% step up at mom's subsequent death. Jon Gallo << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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| Tom Chandel <tomchandNS[at]gwi.net> wrote: - quote - > TP's parents transferred parents' house from husband and
They might if, as it California, it would allow them to> wife ownership to "joint tenants and not tenants in common" > with themselves and their children (TP and siblings). > Shortly after this was done the father dies. Mother lives in > the house for about a year or so and goes into a nursing > home and passes away after about 6 months. > The state now looks at the deed to their property. signs off > on the property at that point (I didn't know they did that > kind of thing), increase the property tax. - quote - > and then the kids (TP and siblings) sell the
Well, it depends. Did the kids pay anything to be put on> property (say for 300K). The property in the hands of the > parents had a very low basis (say 50K). > What is the basis and gain to the kids? title when the parents changed their deed? If not, the were not owners of the property for tax purposes. The entire value of the property should be included in the mother's estate for estate tax purposes (if the estate is large enough). And the kids' basis is the value on the mother's date of death. Stu << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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| Hi gang! Hope everyone is having a great tax season, and remember to write your senators and congressmen thanking them for Tax Simplification! I have an issue that appears from time to time in various forms, and would like to run it by the group here. We all know that a gift keeps the basis of the donor (usually), whereas an inheritance usually acquires the FMV as of the DOD or alternate date. So, how do we treat property that was transferred to joint tenancy during the grantor's lifetime? Facts: TP's parents transferred parents' house from husband and wife ownership to "joint tenants and not tenants in common" with themselves and their children (TP and siblings). Shortly after this was done the father dies. Mother lives in the house for about a year or so and goes into a nursing home and passes away after about 6 months. The state now looks at the deed to their property. signs off on the property at that point (I didn't know they did that kind of thing), and then the kids (TP and siblings) sell the property (say for 300K). The property in the hands of the parents had a very low basis (say 50K). What is the basis and gain to the kids? Thanks all - and many happy returns! Tom C. << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
| Tags |
| heirs, joint, tenants |
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