|
#1
| |||
| |||
| beachboy_1013[at]yahoo.com wrote: - quote - > Starting in 1992, my girlfriend had a series of heart
You are either the same person as creativecopy[at]yahoo.com or> attacks. She had no insurance, and was unable to work, and > over the following seven years I made seven loans to her > totaling $165,000. We married in 1999 and in 2002 she signed > over 50% ownership of a house she owned with her mother, as > payment of the seven loans. In 2004 I sold this 50% > ownership of the house for $200,000. Can I use the $165,000 > of loans made to my wife when she was my girlfriend as the > purchase price of the half interest in the house in order to > reduce my capital gains tax? you are in his class at school. Either way, this question has already been asked on this group. Try a search in Google Groups. -- Alan http://taxtopics.net << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
| | |||
| |||
| beachboy_1013[at]yahoo.com wrote: - quote - > Can I use the $165,000
Had you and your wife made that exchange PRIOR to marriage,> of loans made to my wife when she was my girlfriend as the > purchase price of the half interest in the house in order to > reduce my capital gains tax? the answer would probably be "yes." However, once married, transactions between spouses are generally view as "gifts" with no tax consequence. Your "basis" in the half interest of the house sold would be equal to your wife's basis at the time she gave it to you. MTW << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
|
#-1
| |||
| |||
| Starting in 1992, my girlfriend had a series of heart attacks. She had no insurance, and was unable to work, and over the following seven years I made seven loans to her totaling $165,000. We married in 1999 and in 2002 she signed over 50% ownership of a house she owned with her mother, as payment of the seven loans. In 2004 I sold this 50% ownership of the house for $200,000. Can I use the $165,000 of loans made to my wife when she was my girlfriend as the purchase price of the half interest in the house in order to reduce my capital gains tax? << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
| Tags |
| capital, gains, loans, made, marriage, reduce, wife |
Similar Threads | ||||
| Thread | Forum | Replies | Last Post | |
| How best to enter paper Capital gains and return of capital PTH: I hold mutual funds that report both capital gains and return of capital at the end of year for tax purposes. Neither of these are actually paid... | Microsoft Money | 5 | 03-19-2008 10:08 PM | |
| loans made to others hwyhiker: On 7/27/04 I loaned out $15,000 as an investment in rehabing a foreclosed home. I set up the loan as an "Asset" of $15,000. The money was loaned to... | Microsoft Money | 1 | 04-06-2005 01:14 AM | |
| Question about using loans made to wife before marriage to reduce capital gains after marriage. bored_one: Starting in 1992, my girlfriend had a series of heart attacks. She had no insurance, and was unable to work, and over the following seven years I... | Taxes | 4 | 02-04-2005 03:14 AM | |
| Q: Itemize vs Joint w/wife who made only 4k Andrew: My wife has a work from home job and last year she made $3,963.11. The company she works for took State Taxes out but NO Federal Taxes. I made... | Taxes | 4 | 02-04-2005 02:55 AM | |
| Thread Tools | |
| Display Modes | |
| |