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Old 02-03-2005, 06:44 PM
Thomas Healy
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Default Re: Hmmm Seller financed mortgage doesn't figure??

"johnr_526[at]hotmail.com" <johnr_526[at]hotmail.com> wrote:

- quote -

> My wife owned a condo from before our marriage. Last year, actually in
> 2003, she "sold" the property to someone under a land contract.
> Meawhile we continue to pay the mortgage on this same property to the
> bank.
> Seem to me that if we claim the "interest" we're collecting from the
> new owner (as a "seller financed mortgage), and deduct the interest we
> pay the bank, it should be a wash. But, it isn't. According to
> TurboTax, our refund goes down by about $150.
> Maybe this makes sense. Can I even deduct this interest, inasmuch as it
> isn't our primary residence? We have no other real estate holdings.


The interest income you receive goes on Schedule B. The
expense you pay on the underlying mortgage is investment
interest and goes first on Form 4952 and then to Schedule A.
If your income is otherwise high enough to have the 3%
itemized deduction limitation apply, you will lose some of
the benefit of itemized deductions, which may explain your
lower refund.

--
Tom Healy, CPA
Boulder, CO
Web: http://www.tomhealycpa.com

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Old 02-03-2005, 06:25 PM
David Woods, EA, ChFC, CLU
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Default Re: Hmmm Seller financed mortgage doesn't figure??

"johnr_526[at]hotmail.com" <johnr_526[at]hotmail.com> wrote:

- quote -

> If anyone can clarify this for me, I'd be grateful.
> My wife owned a condo from before our marriage. Last year, actually in
> 2003, she "sold" the property to someone under a land contract.
> Meawhile we continue to pay the mortgage on this same property to the
> bank.
> Seem to me that if we claim the "interest" we're collecting from the
> new owner (as a "seller financed mortgage), and deduct the interest we
> pay the bank, it should be a wash. But, it isn't. According to
> TurboTax, our refund goes down by about $150.
> Maybe this makes sense. Can I even deduct this interest, inasmuch as it
> isn't our primary residence? We have no other real estate holdings.


It's not a qualifying mortgage, it should be treated and
deducted as investment interest. Either way, depending on
your AGI, the interest is affecting the deduction of your
other itemizeds, as investment interest (because it is an
investment linked to the mortgage and not real estate), that
interest isn't affected by AGI.

--
David M. Woods, EA, ChFC, CLU
Woods Financial Services
Norwood, MA 02062
www.woods-financial.com

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  #-1  
Old 02-02-2005, 08:38 PM
johnr_526@hotmail.com
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Default Hmmm Seller financed mortgage doesn't figure??

If anyone can clarify this for me, I'd be grateful.

My wife owned a condo from before our marriage. Last year, actually in
2003, she "sold" the property to someone under a land contract.
Meawhile we continue to pay the mortgage on this same property to the
bank.

Seem to me that if we claim the "interest" we're collecting from the
new owner (as a "seller financed mortgage), and deduct the interest we
pay the bank, it should be a wash. But, it isn't. According to
TurboTax, our refund goes down by about $150.

Maybe this makes sense. Can I even deduct this interest, inasmuch as it
isn't our primary residence? We have no other real estate holdings.
TIA & Regards,
JohnR

<< -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << ------------------------------------------------->
 

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