b milton wrote:

- quote -

No.

--
Alan
http://taxtopics.net

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b milton wrote:

- quote -

This is a really good question, a challenge, even.

First, I'm assuming (dangerous, I know!) that your'e
talking about your husband's business being a
proprietorship, i.e. single owner business, as opposed to a
partnership; right?)

In that case, the business ceased as of his death. And if
you collect the money post mortem, you certainly have done
nothing by which to be subject to SE tax. Therefore,
I'll go with it not being subject to SE tax.

Maybe someone else has had the situation arise; I haven't.
However I do remember after my father died, a grocery store
owner, custmer of his, came by the house and settled up
with mother. Now I'm wondering about the proper treatment,
not that that matters at this late date, however.

ChEAr$,
Harlan Lunsford, EA n LA
Wed 26 Jan 2005

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b milton wrote:

- quote -

IMHO, no. Report in on Line 21 with the notation "Income in
Respect of a Decedent."

Phoebe

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"b milton" <knuckles145[at]gmail.com> wrote:

- quote -

No. An estate is not subject to SE tax.

--
Tom Healy, CPA
Boulder, CO
Web: http://www.tomhealycpa.com

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My husband passed away Feb 2004 (man has it been a year
already??)

At the time of his death, he had a cash basis consulting
business with about $6000 in accounts receivable. I know
that SE tax will be due on the income received before his
death, but is SE tax due on the money that came in after his
death??

Beth

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