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#13
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| A wrote: - quote - > Transfers made during the life of the decedent that are
Thank you for your reply, and the quote from the tax> recaptured and taxed within his estate at his death are > entitled to a "step-up" in basis (Code Sec. 1014(b)(9)). > Additionally, the holding period of property aquired from a > decedent is always deemed long term Code Sec. 1223(11). code that verifies it... I knew the answer, from other sources, and was put off a little from the various replies that came from others here..... Your reply is the kind of answer that I expected from this newsgroup. I really appreciate your effective reply.. Andy << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#12
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| - quote - > As a remainder person, I had no control over the property
Correct.> until the Grantor's death. - quote - > In effect, "gift with reserved life estate" creates a bypass
Also irrelevant.> to probate exactly as "Smith in trust for Jones" has with a > CD account.... - quote - > I'm not saying you are wrong, but since I had no control or
You had a future interest, which you gained a long time ago.> complete ownership of the property until the Grantor's > death, ,...... why is it a long term capital gain instead > of short term ??? You sold it recently. The difference in time is therefore long. - quote - > Assuming you are correct, does this have any difference in
I don't think there's any step-up, since the property wasn't> the tax due except which part of Schedule D I fill out, > since the step-up in basis for a sale 1 day after the > Grantor's death means the capital gain is zero ?? Thanks for > your opinion..... in the estate. Seth << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#11
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| "Andy" <andysharpe[at]juno.com> wrote: - quote - > This refers to Federal Income tax :
Transfers made during the life of the decedent that are> I received a gift in 1990 of a house , with the grantor > retaining a life estate. > The grantor died this Octorber, and the house was sold one > week later, with the actual closing in December 2004. > Since the house was sold on approximately the date of > death, I am assuming that the FMV = Sale Price = Cost basis > (due to step-up in basis rule). > This should make Schedule D, short term Cap Gains, very > easy to fill out. Cap gain = 0 , tax = 0 . > Is this correct ? recaptured and taxed within his estate at his death are entitled to a "step-up" in basis (Code Sec. 1014(b)(9)). Additionally, the holding period of property aquired from a decedent is always deemed long term Code Sec. 1223(11). << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#10
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| Bruce Raskin CPA wrote: - quote - > Get a copy of the Gift tax Return that was filed after the
Andy replies to Bruce:> gift was made. It will show the value of the house gifted to > you. You should have filed a Gift Tax Return showing the > value of the life estate on the date it was created. Nothing > is simple. > The taxable gain will be the difference between selling > price and gift value to you and will be long term. Bruce, the recipient of a gift does not file a gift tax return. In fact, I was not even made aware of it. I have NO IDEA of the tax status, filings, or anything about the grantor. The grantor had a guardian appointed by the state who is supposed to do all the grantor's tax stuff, which is essentially nothing since it was WELL below the limit for death taxes...... I really doubt that anything will be done, since there is nothing in the estate to pay the guardian's, the tax accountant, or the required lawyer. The house was quit claimed 15 years ago....... Not my problem, tho. Tax code says a quit claim with life estate has a step up in basis the same as an inheritance..... I value your input, tho, and if you can show me a part of the code which conflicts with what I have presented, please let me know... Andy email: andysharpe[at]juno.com << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#9
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| Gene E. Utterback, EA wrote: - quote - > Close, but you probably have a loss for tax purposes, here's
Gene,> why: > Your basis in the house is the FMV of the property at the > date of death. Some will say you have gotten an appraisal, > but in actuality selling it one week from the date of death > does as good a job as any in setting the FMV. So we know the > sale price and your basis. > Here's what you may have missed - you add to your basis the > costs of the sale including settlement costs and > commissions. So you basis is actually FMV PLUS costs. When > you subtract these from the sale price you should have a > loss of approximately the settlement costs, including > commissions. > The holding period term is long-term - you should show the > date acquired on Schedule D as "INHERITED". Thanks. Your answers agrees with the tax code that I have researched which says that a gifted property with a life estate has a step-up in basis on grantor's death. It seems that others here have a different view. I did not realize that the holding period was long term, since I had no control or knowledge of the "gift" until this year. Let me mention that when the gift was made, 15 years ago, I was not told about it ---- however the quit claim was done by an attorney and recorded on the warranty deed. I found this out shortly before the grantor's death. There was no problem selling the property, since all that was required was a death certificate of the grantor to clear the life estate off of the deed, which, by definition, has NO value as soon as the grantor dies.....( there is only a life estate interest value when the grantor is alive )..... (I suggest that some of the tax experts here should go to misc.legal.moderated to learn more about ownership ). A grantee has ZERO rights to control/sell/improve/occupy the property if a life estate is retained. It's about the same as a CD which is pod to a beneficiary. The purpose is to shelter the property from Medicaid, and to avoid probate. Anyway, I was wondering if the sales costs, which were only a few thousand, were items that I could claim as a loss. Thank you for making that clear to me. I really appreciate getting an informed opinion on this matter. Andy << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#8
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| Andy wrote: - quote - > Dick: Are these the kind of answers you encourage on your
Around here you get what you pay for. We always suggest that> newsgroup???? I was really hoping for more than that.. you consult privately with a competent professional when significant dollars are at stake. This newsgroup is not intended to be a substitute for such consultation. MTW << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#7
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| - quote - > This refers to Federal Income tax :
Nope.> I received a gift in 1990 of a house , with the grantor > retaining a life estate. > The grantor died this Octorber, and the house was sold one > week later, with the actual closing in December 2004. > Since the house was sold on approximately the date of > death, I am assuming that the FMV = Sale Price = Cost basis > (due to step-up in basis rule). > This should make Schedule D, short term Cap Gains, very > easy to fill out. Cap gain = 0 , tax = 0 . > Is this correct ? Get a copy of the Gift tax Return that was filed after the gift was made. It will show the value of the house gifted to you. You should have filed a Gift Tax Return showing the value of the life estate on the date it was created. Nothing is simple. The taxable gain will be the difference between selling price and gift value to you and will be long term. Bruce Raskin, CPA Phoenix, AZ << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#6
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| David, I don't understand. As a remainder person, I had no control over the property until the Grantor's death. The Grantor has the right to live there , or not live there, with full control over the property until her death. She alsol had the responsibility to maintain the property and pay the taxes... In effect, "gift with reserved life estate" creates a bypass to probate exactly as "Smith in trust for Jones" has with a CD account.... I'm not saying you are wrong, but since I had no control or complete ownership of the property until the Grantor's death, ,...... why is it a long term capital gain instead of short term ??? Assuming you are correct, does this have any difference in the tax due except which part of Schedule D I fill out, since the step-up in basis for a sale 1 day after the Grantor's death means the capital gain is zero ?? Thanks for your opinion..... Andy << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#5
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| When you received the house you should have taken the donor's basis in interest you received. You got a remainder interest, so the basis in what you received may have been less than the donor's basis (i.e., part of the donor's basis may have gone into the retained life estate - in interest in real property with its own separate value). At any rate, you did not get a step-up in basis due to the donor's death because you didn't receive the gift as a bequest or in contemplation of death. Since you didn't get a step-up basis to FMV, (and since the value of the house has probably risen appreciably since 1990), you will have a fair amount of gain in the house; this gain should be long-term capital gain. I am assuming that you did not use the house as your principal residence. << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#4
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| Harlan, I do not understand your response.. I have addressed my concerns here... Harlan Lunsford wrote: - quote - > Andy wrote:
Harlan said:> > This refers to Federal Income tax : > > > I received a gift in 1990 of a house , with the grantor > > retaining a life estate. > > > The grantor died this Octorber, and the house was sold one > > week later, with the actual closing in December 2004. - quote - > Who sold the house? YOu?
Of course. Since the local tax office needed only a deathcertificate to clear the grantor with the life estate, there was no problem.. - quote - > > Since the house was sold on approximately the date of
Harlan said;> > death, I am assuming that the FMV = Sale Price = Cost basis > > (due to step-up in basis rule). - quote - > If a gift was made to YOU, then YOU owned the house, and the
Yes, but under the law, I could do nothing at all until the> basis of the house was cost to the donor. Grantor's death. Law says the Grantor is responsibe for taxes and upkeep until Grantor's death. Only THEN do I have the right to control the house...... It is assumed that the Grantor has filed appropriate gift taxes in 1990. The cost to the Grantor is of no concern, since the gift with life estate has a step up in basis on Grantor's death... - quote - > > This should make Schedule D, short term Cap Gains, very
Ok... What is the problem ??????> > easy to fill out. Cap gain = 0 , tax = 0 . > Looks like YOU have a problem. - quote - > Unless this is a question out of Income Tax 201 at your
So, if you have taken that course, could you please let me> local college. know what the answer should be.....??? I am afraid I can't divine anything other than "you have a problem "....... - quote - > Dick: why do I think this way?
Dick: Are these the kind of answers you encourage on yournewsgroup???? I was really hoping for more than that.. Moderator: 1) It's our newsgroup, not mine. 2) Harlan is a special case 3) There are NO simple Schedule D questions. 4) There are NO simple Schedule D answers. 5) If you want an answer that is accurate and reasonably precise (new buzz words here), you will need to wake up a few more people. << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#3
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| "Andy" <andysharpe[at]juno.com> wrote: - quote - > This refers to Federal Income tax :
Close, but you probably have a loss for tax purposes, here's> I received a gift in 1990 of a house , with the grantor > retaining a life estate. > The grantor died this Octorber, and the house was sold one > week later, with the actual closing in December 2004. > Since the house was sold on approximately the date of > death, I am assuming that the FMV = Sale Price = Cost basis > (due to step-up in basis rule). > This should make Schedule D, short term Cap Gains, very > easy to fill out. Cap gain = 0 , tax = 0 . > Is this correct ? why: Your basis in the house is the FMV of the property at the date of death. Some will say you have gotten an appraisal, but in actuality selling it one week from the date of death does as good a job as any in setting the FMV. So we know the sale price and your basis. Here's what you may have missed - you add to your basis the costs of the sale including settlement costs and commissions. So you basis is actually FMV PLUS costs. When you subtract these from the sale price you should have a loss of approximately the settlement costs, including commissions. The holding period term is long-term - you should show the date acquired on Schedule D as "INHERITED". Gene E. Utterback, EA << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#2
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| "Andy" <andysharpe[at]juno.com> wrote: - quote - > This refers to Federal Income tax :
No. It is a long-term transaction.> I received a gift in 1990 of a house , with the grantor > retaining a life estate. > The grantor died this Octorber, and the house was sold one > week later, with the actual closing in December 2004. > Since the house was sold on approximately the date of > death, I am assuming that the FMV = Sale Price = Cost basis > (due to step-up in basis rule). > This should make Schedule D, short term Cap Gains, very > easy to fill out. Cap gain = 0 , tax = 0 . > Is this correct ? -- David M. Woods, EA, ChFC, CLU Woods Financial Services Norwood, MA 02062 www.woods-financial.com << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#1
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| Andy wrote: - quote - > This refers to Federal Income tax :
Who sold the house? YOu?> I received a gift in 1990 of a house , with the grantor > retaining a life estate. > The grantor died this Octorber, and the house was sold one > week later, with the actual closing in December 2004. - quote - > Since the house was sold on approximately the date of
If a gift was made to YOU, then YOU owned the house, and the> death, I am assuming that the FMV = Sale Price = Cost basis > (due to step-up in basis rule). basis of the house was cost to the donor. - quote - > This should make Schedule D, short term Cap Gains, very
Looks like YOU have a problem.> easy to fill out. Cap gain = 0 , tax = 0 . Unless this is a question out of Income Tax 201 at your local college. Happy New ChEAr$, Harlan Lunsford Dick: why do I think this way? << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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| "Andy" <andysharpe[at]juno.com> wrote: - quote - > This refers to Federal Income tax :
The gain/loss is long term, not short term.> I received a gift in 1990 of a house , with the grantor > retaining a life estate. > The grantor died this Octorber, and the house was sold one > week later, with the actual closing in December 2004. > Since the house was sold on approximately the date of > death, I am assuming that the FMV = Sale Price = Cost basis > (due to step-up in basis rule). > This should make Schedule D, short term Cap Gains, very > easy to fill out. Cap gain = 0 , tax = 0 . > Is this correct ? > Thank you for all infomed responses.... > Andy << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#-1
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| This refers to Federal Income tax : I received a gift in 1990 of a house , with the grantor retaining a life estate. The grantor died this Octorber, and the house was sold one week later, with the actual closing in December 2004. Since the house was sold on approximately the date of death, I am assuming that the FMV = Sale Price = Cost basis (due to step-up in basis rule). This should make Schedule D, short term Cap Gains, very easy to fill out. Cap gain = 0 , tax = 0 . Is this correct ? Thank you for all infomed responses.... Andy << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
| Tags |
| question, schedule, simple |
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