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#13
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| Arthur L. Rubin wrote: - quote - > PeterL wrote:
And on that subject, I would say, Don't even THINK about> > In general you are better off if > > you can predict the future. > Especially future tax laws. trying. Many years running clients would ask me if they could deduct their kids college tuition, and I would always reply, year after year, "Never in a million years!" As James Bond movie title suggests, Never Say Never. Merry Christmas, Harlan Lunsford Mon, 20 Dec 2004 21:35:15 << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#12
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| - quote - > > I am well aware that the basis of inherited stock is the
If you can predict stock prices, sure. But if you can> > price on the date of death (or possibly later). But what > > about this scenario: > > > A decedent had purchased stock at $100/share. The price > > declines and the shares are inherited at $75. They recover > > and once again are worth $100. > > > According to the above, it would appear that the heir has a > > potential capital gain of $25/share. Is this correct? Is it > > fair? It would seem that the heir would be better off had > > the decedent gifted the shares -- prior to death, of course. > > <g > Correct, yes. Fair, why not? If you can mark up basis when > the value increases, why not mark it down when it decreases? > Better to have gifted, in this case, yes. predict stock prices, paying taxes would be the least of your concerns. << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#11
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| PeterL wrote: - quote - > In general you are better off if
Especially future tax laws.> you can predict the future. << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#10
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| "William Brenner" <wjbjr[at]webtv.net> wrote: - quote - > I am well aware that the basis of inherited stock is the
value the estate. By having the lower price, the estate may> price on the date of death (or possibly later). But what > about this scenario: > A decedent had purchased stock at $100/share. The price > declines and the shares are inherited at $75. They recover > and once again are worth $100. > According to the above, it would appear that the heir has a > potential capital gain of $25/share. Is this correct? Is it > fair? It would seem that the heir would be better off had > the decedent gifted the shares -- prior to death, of course. <g You are correct. The Cost basis is the share price used to have paid a lower tax. << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#9
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| - quote - > I am well aware that the basis of inherited stock is the
If the value is higher then the purchase price the gain is> price on the date of death (or possibly later). But what > about this scenario: > A decedent had purchased stock at $100/share. The price > declines and the shares are inherited at $75. They recover > and once again are worth $100. > According to the above, it would appear that the heir has a > potential capital gain of $25/share. Is this correct? Is it > fair? It would seem that the heir would be better off had > the decedent gifted the shares -- prior to death, of course. <g The basic rule is that stocks are valued at date of death. not taxed, If it is less, the loss is not deductible. The shares are not valued at purchase price in any event. Bruce Raskin, CPA Phoenix, AZ << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#8
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| William Brenner wrote: - quote - > According to the above, it would appear that the heir has a
It is correct. Basis is adjusted to FMV at date of death,> potential capital gain of $25/share. Is this correct? Is it > fair? whether up or DOWN. The downward adjustment is just as "fair" as the upward adjustment, in my opinion. MTW << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#7
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| William Brenner wrote: - quote - > I am well aware that the basis of inherited stock is the
fmv, whichever lower at time of gift?"> price on the date of death (or possibly later). But what > about this scenario: > A decedent had purchased stock at $100/share. The price > declines and the shares are inherited at $75. They recover > and once again are worth $100. > According to the above, it would appear that the heir has a > potential capital gain of $25/share. Is this correct? Is it > fair? It would seem that the heir would be better off had > the decedent gifted the shares -- prior to death, of course. > <g Hmm, I'm not sure, but isn't the rule for a gift "cost or ChEAr$, Harlan Lunsford << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#6
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| "William Brenner" <wjbjr[at]webtv.net> wrote: - quote - > I am well aware that the basis of inherited stock is the
comment is correct - inherited items have a basis equal to> price on the date of death (or possibly later). But what > about this scenario: > A decedent had purchased stock at $100/share. The price > declines and the shares are inherited at $75. They recover > and once again are worth $100. > According to the above, it would appear that the heir has a > potential capital gain of $25/share. Is this correct? Is it > fair? It would seem that the heir would be better off had > the decedent gifted the shares -- prior to death, of course. <g What has "fair" got to do with anything? Your initial the Fair Market Value at the date of valuation, either the date of death or 6 months later at the discretion of the personal representative. This concept of basis on inherited items is one that I have taken up with many colleagues - as tax pros we tend to talk about "stepping up basis" on inherited items. While a step up does usually occur, the correct phrase is that basis gets "adjusted" on inherited items. Lastly, regarding your comment about being better off gifting - this is a hindsight analysis, on point I agree but done in retrospect with full knowledge of what has already happened. It is akin to saying "had I know what was going to happen on 9-11, I wouldn't have gone to NY to sightsee that week." Gene E. Utterback, EA << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#5
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| wjbjr[at]webtv.net (William Brenner) writes: - quote - > A decedent had purchased stock at $100/share. The price
Yes> declines and the shares are inherited at $75. They recover > and once again are worth $100. > According to the above, it would appear that the heir has a > potential capital gain of $25/share. Is this correct? - quote - > Is it fair?
Well, considering that he still has $75 per share in untaxedincome, it won't keep me up at night. - quote - > It would seem that the heir would be better off had
That wouldn't have helped. When determining whether there's> the decedent gifted the shares -- prior to death, of course. a loss on the disposition of gifted property, the basis is the lesser of the donor's basis or the item's FMV on the date of transfer. See IRS Publication 551. Phil Marti Clarksburg, MD << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#4
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| William Brenner <wjbjr[at]webtv.net> wrote: - quote - > I am well aware that the basis of inherited stock is the
I can answer your question about taxes, but I'd need to be a> price on the date of death (or possibly later). But what > about this scenario: > A decedent had purchased stock at $100/share. The price > declines and the shares are inherited at $75. They recover > and once again are worth $100. > According to the above, it would appear that the heir has a > potential capital gain of $25/share. Is this correct? Is it > fair? It would seem that the heir would be better off had > the decedent gifted the shares -- prior to death, of course. philosopher, preacher and prophet to answer questions of fairness. If the stock was bought at 100 and valued at 75 on date of death, then unless federal estate tax can be saved by valuing all property at the alternate valuation date, the cost basis of inherited property is its date of death value. Note that had he given away the stock a day before death at $75, then the recipient would use $100 as cost basis only to compute gain, but would use the $75 figure to compute loss when the stock is eventually sold. This means the donor could not give away the loss to anyone! Giving the stock away would not have helped the recipient's capital gain situation. What he could have done is sold enough stock at a loss to generate a $3000 loss, and that could have been used on his final Form 1040. __ Art Kamlet ArtKamlet [at] AOL.com Columbus OH K2PZH << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#3
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| "William Brenner" <wjbjr[at]webtv.net> wrote: - quote - > I am well aware that the basis of inherited stock is the
Yes.> price on the date of death (or possibly later). But what > about this scenario: > A decedent had purchased stock at $100/share. The price > declines and the shares are inherited at $75. They recover > and once again are worth $100. > According to the above, it would appear that the heir has a > potential capital gain of $25/share. Is this correct? - quote - > Is it fair?
Define "fair".- quote - > It would seem that the heir would be better off had
Well, if they can predict the future, yes (that the stock> the decedent gifted the shares -- prior to death, of course. would appreciate again). In general you are better off if you can predict the future. << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#2
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| wjbjr[at]webtv.net (William Brenner) writes: - quote - > I am well aware that the basis of inherited stock is the
Yes.> price on the date of death (or possibly later). But what > about this scenario: > A decedent had purchased stock at $100/share. The price > declines and the shares are inherited at $75. They recover > and once again are worth $100. > According to the above, it would appear that the heir has a > potential capital gain of $25/share. Is this correct? - quote - > Is it fair?
It's no more or less fair than when the basis resetspares the heirs lots of cap gain taxes. - quote - > It would seem that the heir would be better off had
Yes, the heir would have been better off.> the decedent gifted the shares -- prior to death, of course. Stock with a basis of $100 which is gifted away when it is at $75 takes on a dual basis of $75 for computing losses and $100 for computing gains. If the stock is later sold for over $100, the basis is $100. If the stock is sold for less than $75, the basis is $75. If the stock is sold for between $75 and $100, the basis is whatever the stock was sold for (i.e. no gain or loss occurs). -- Rich Carreiro rlcarr[at]animato.arlington.ma.us << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#1
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| - quote - > I am well aware that the basis of inherited stock is the
the value increases, why not mark it down when it decreases?> price on the date of death (or possibly later). But what > about this scenario: > A decedent had purchased stock at $100/share. The price > declines and the shares are inherited at $75. They recover > and once again are worth $100. > According to the above, it would appear that the heir has a > potential capital gain of $25/share. Is this correct? Is it > fair? It would seem that the heir would be better off had > the decedent gifted the shares -- prior to death, of course. > <g Correct, yes. Fair, why not? If you can mark up basis when Better to have gifted, in this case, yes. Ira Smilovitz << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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| wjbjr[at]webtv.net (William Brenner) wrote: - quote - > I am well aware that the basis of inherited stock is the
How is this taxation any more unfair than the capital gains> price on the date of death (or possibly later). But what > about this scenario: > A decedent had purchased stock at $100/share. The price > declines and the shares are inherited at $75. They recover > and once again are worth $100. > According to the above, it would appear that the heir has a > potential capital gain of $25/share. Is this correct? Is it > fair? tax he'd owe if he'd purchased the shares himself? He's still way ahead, since he never had to pay the original $75. - quote - > It would seem that the heir would be better off had
I assume that the price decline reduced the decedent's> the decedent gifted the shares -- prior to death, of course. estate, so it reduced the estate tax, leaving more capital for his heirs. And since the estate tax rate is significantly higher than capital gains tax rate, the savings here was quite a bit. -- Barry Margolin, barmar[at]alum.mit.edu Arlington, MA << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#-1
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| I am well aware that the basis of inherited stock is the price on the date of death (or possibly later). But what about this scenario: A decedent had purchased stock at $100/share. The price declines and the shares are inherited at $75. They recover and once again are worth $100. According to the above, it would appear that the heir has a potential capital gain of $25/share. Is this correct? Is it fair? It would seem that the heir would be better off had the decedent gifted the shares -- prior to death, of course. <g << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
| Tags |
| capital, inheritance, loss |
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