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#6
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| Plin321 wrote: - quote - > My father recently added me name to the title on a house in
1 & 2) That's going to depend on whether you should have> CA, so now it it under his and my name. My mom passed away a > few years ago and the title used to be on both of their > names. > My question is, what are the tax consequences to me: > 1. This year (the year in which he added my name to the title)? > 2. If he were to relinquish his name and sign the title solely to me? > 3. If I were to then sell the house and reinvest in another house? been added as a result of your mother's will or family trust document, both which are common in CA. However, if you had no share of the property from her death and he just simply added you, Questions #1 and #2 could invoke gift tax, but per Proposition 58 from the 1970's era, there is no change in property tax. 3) You are thinking of the law that was replaced in 1997. Reinvestment is irrelevant. - quote - > Is there a step up in basis in this situation?
No.<< -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#5
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| plin321[at]aol.com (Plin321) wrote: - quote - > My father recently added me name to the title on a house in
None, it's a gift to you, and gifts are taxable to the> CA, so now it it under his and my name. My mom passed away a > few years ago and the title used to be on both of their > names. > My question is, what are the tax consequences to me: > 1. This year (the year in which he added my name to the title)? giver, not to the recipient. Unless this is a mighty unusual house for California, a gift of half a house will mean your father will need to file a gift tax return and use up some of his lifetime unified credit. - quote - > 2. If he were to relinquish his name and sign the title solely to me?
Still no taxable consequences for you, only for him. If itis a valuable house, then the gift will eat up a large part of his lifetime unified credit. - quote - > 3. If I were to then sell the house and reinvest in another house?
Taxable to you, unless you live in it for two years in orderto qualify for the capital gains exemption (then any gain in excess of $250,000 is taxable). The problem is that his basis becomes your basis (unless, in a situation that would be rare indeed in California, the house is now worth less than his basis: then figuring basis becomes more complex, because there are rules that prevent giving away a tax loss). Since you step into his holding period as well as his basis, the gain would be long-term (unless he acquired the house just recently, and you were to sell soon, or if the rules on a gift at a loss were to apply). If he bought for $50,000 thirty years ago, it's now worth $500,000, and he gives you the whole thing, he makes a taxable gift of $500,000 less $11,000 = $489,000, and you receive a house with $50,000 basis. If you sell it immediately, you owe capital gains tax on $450,000 of long-term gain. If you live in it for two years and then sell for $500,000, you owe capital gains tax on $200,000. - quote - > Is there a step up in basis in this situation?
Not unless your father paid gift tax on the transfer. That'sone of the reasons not to do it in the first place. There are ways to arrange transfers of real estate and other valuable property such that as much as possible goes to your children, as little as possible goes to the taxman or Medicaid, and it's protected as best it can be from your and your children's creditors. You have to get expert advice in advance to take advantage of any of these: lawyers who practice elder law and financial planners have the background to do this. Asking after the fact may reveal instead that you scored an expensive own-goal. -- Chris Green << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#4
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| plin321[at]aol.com (Plin321) wrote: - quote - > My father recently added me name to the title on a house in
A non-taxable GIFT to you, including 1/2 the adjusted basis> CA, so now it it under his and my name. My mom passed away a > few years ago and the title used to be on both of their > names. > My question is, what are the tax consequences to me: > 1. This year (the year in which he added my name to the title)? for the property. That basis was stepped up on the date of your mother's death. Your father needs to file a Gift Tax Return (Form 709) if the FMV of the gift is over $11,000. - quote - > 2. If he were to relinquish his name and sign the title solely to me?
A MUCH bigger gift, but still non-taxable to you.- quote - > 3. If I were to then sell the house and reinvest in another house?
Pay capital gains on the difference between selling priceand adjusted cost basis (taking selling costs in mind). What you do with the funds is irrelevant, but there is no tax break for reinvesting in another house. However, if this property is a rental, you might be able to arrange a tax-deferred 1031 EXCHANGE to another rental property. - quote - > Is there a step up in basis in this situation?
No, a basis stepup only occurs when you inherit an asset,not receive it as a gift. << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#3
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| plin321[at]aol.com (Plin321) wrote: - quote - > My father recently added me name to the title on a house in
In general and for a typical California residence ownership> CA, so now it it under his and my name. My mom passed away a > few years ago and the title used to be on both of their > names. > My question is, what are the tax consequences to me: > 1. This year (the year in which he added my name to the title)? > 2. If he were to relinquish his name and sign the title solely to me? > 3. If I were to then sell the house and reinvest in another house? > Is there a step up in basis in this situation? > Thanks in advance for any help. situation over time what you describe can be a poor move income tax wise. It may cost you dearly in taxes when you make changes later. Did a professional tax or real estate person advise this move? A lot depends on details and plans not stated. It starts with, did your mom and dad hold the home as community property. If they did, when you mom died the whole basis stepped up to FMV as of that date for your dad, the owner. Frequently, that's a significant jump, which erases hundreds of thousands of capital gain. Also it depends on whether your dad wants to keep the house as his home for the foreseeable future and/or until he dies. If he kept it himself and willed it to you, you would get the stepped up FMV at his death. If he kept it himself and meets the live-in requirements and sells it before the value increases more than $250,000 from the FMV at Mom's death – Community Property held. He keeps it all. If your parents didn't hold it as community property (a very typical mistake – we've had have community property with right of survivorship as a choice for a few years now), then things don't work out as well. Half steps up and half keeps the old basis, typically Maybe there is a reason why he added you to the title but if it just sounded like a good idea, look again carefully. I'd say go over what's been done and his plans with a tax professional. If you don't have an appraisal in the file showing FMV at key dates, that's a place to start. Making good choices in this area can mean a big difference tax wise. If your whole thrust is just how to handle gift taxes, I'll leave it to someone else to address. BC << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#2
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| plin321[at]aol.com (Plin321) wrote: - quote - > My father recently added me name to the title on a house in
In general and for a typical California residence ownership> CA, so now it it under his and my name. My mom passed away a > few years ago and the title used to be on both of their > names. > My question is, what are the tax consequences to me: > 1. This year (the year in which he added my name to the title)? > 2. If he were to relinquish his name and sign the title solely to me? > 3. If I were to then sell the house and reinvest in another house? > Is there a step up in basis in this situation? situation over time what you describe can be a poor move income tax wise. It may cost you dearly in taxes when you make changes later. Did a professional tax or real estate person advise this move? A lot depends on details and plans not stated. It starts with, did your mom and dad hold the home as community property. If they did, when you mom died the whole basis stepped up to FMV as of that date for your dad, the owner. Frequently, that's a significant jump, which erases hundreds of thousands of capital gain. Also it depends on whether your dad wants to keep the house as his home for the foreseeable future and/or until he dies. If he kept it himself and willed it to you, you would get the stepped up FMV at his death. If he kept it himself and meets the live-in requirements and sells it before the value increases more than $250,000 from the FMV at Mom's death – Community Property held. He keeps it all. If your parents didn't hold it as community property (a very typical mistake – we've had have community property with right of survivorship as a choice for a few years now), then things don't work out as well. Half steps up and half keeps the old basis, typically Maybe there is a reason why he added you to the title but if it just sounded like a good idea, look again carefully. I'd say go over what's been done and his plans with a tax professional. If you don't have an appraisal in the file showing FMV at key dates, that's a place to start. Making good choices in this area can mean a big difference tax wise. If your whole thrust is just how to handle gift taxes, I'll leave it to someone else to address. BC << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#1
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| Plin321 wrote: - quote - > My question is, what are the tax consequences to me:
Assuming that your father cannot unilaterally REMOVE your> 1. This year (the year in which he added my name to the title)? name from the title, this would represent a "completed" gift, and he would need to file a gift tax return if the value of the half interest is more than $11,000. - quote - > 2. If he were to relinquish his name and sign the title solely
Again, this would likely be a reportable gift.> to me? - quote - > 3. If I were to then sell the house and reinvest in another
Your basis (while your father is still alive) would be your> house? father's basis (no step-up in the case of gifts). The basis MIGHT be stepped up after his death IF he has retained a "life estate" interest in the property. This gets complicated and your father should really seek competent tax, legal and estate planning advice. P.S. WHY is your father doing this? MTW << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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| Plin321 wrote: - quote - > My father recently added me name to the title on a house in
It depends on why he did it. If it was to pay or reward you> CA, so now it it under his and my name. My mom passed away a > few years ago and the title used to be on both of their > names. > My question is, what are the tax consequences to me: > 1. This year (the year in which he added my name to the title)? for something you did for him, it could be taxable income. If it's just for convenience as a way to avoid probate (not recommended for that purpose, by the way, due to possibly higher income tax later), there should be no income or gift tax ramifications. If he did it just because, it's a gift. No taxable income to you, but if it's worth more than $11,000 your father should file a gift tax return. - quote - > 2. If he were to relinquish his name and sign the title solely to me?
Again, it depends on why. In general it would be considereda gift, subject to gift tax but not income tax. - quote - > 3. If I were to then sell the house and reinvest in another house?
Ah, then you pay lots of income tax - at least more than ifyou wait to inherit it after he dies and then sell. - quote - > Is there a step up in basis in this situation?
Heavens no! Well, unless it was transferred to you forconvenience, only as a way to avoid probate. And then you'd get no step-up in basis until after your father dies. Stu << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#-1
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| My father recently added me name to the title on a house in CA, so now it it under his and my name. My mom passed away a few years ago and the title used to be on both of their names. My question is, what are the tax consequences to me: 1. This year (the year in which he added my name to the title)? 2. If he were to relinquish his name and sign the title solely to me? 3. If I were to then sell the house and reinvest in another house? Is there a step up in basis in this situation? Thanks in advance for any help. << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
| Tags |
| adding, child, home, parent, ramifications, tax, title |
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