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| - quote - > During 2001 I received a smallish
I thought that tax was withheld if you DIDN'T file a W-8. I> amount of dividends . . . but unfortunately I didn't have a full > set of W-8s on file so no tax was withheld. am not sure why it wasn't withheld if no W-8 was filed. - quote - > Anyway, I was talking to an IRS tax agent . . . and she claimed that I
You must be engaged in a trade or business in the U.S. in> should have filed the dividends as effectively connected income . . . . order for income to be effectively connected to that trade or business. Since you are not engaged in a U.S. trade or business, you cannot have effectively connected income. << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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| Andy Hird wrote: - quote - > I'm a non-resident alien (I used to live in the US until
You do not have any effectively connected income unless you> 1999, haven't been back since) for tax purposes who has a > few investments in the US held by several brokerages and > financial institutions. During 2001 I received a smallish > amount of dividends from both mutual funds, bonds and a REIT > during the tax year but unfortunately I didn't have a full > set of W-8s on file so no tax was withheld. I didn't realise > this until the IRS kindly notified me and I've since filed a > late return for 2001. I filed the dividends as income not > effectively connected income because it was from personal > investments (which aren't connected to any company I worked > for at the time) and paid the 15% I owed (I'm a Australian > resident for tax purposes). > All great and straight forward so far. > Anyway, I was talking to an IRS tax agent a few days ago after I > received a penalty for the late tax return and she claimed that I > should have filed the dividends as effectively connected income which > using the personal deduction would have wiped out my tax bill. She even > went away for several hours to check what she was saying was true (I > pointed out that the IRS website FAQ and various publications say that > the income was not-effectively connected) and when she got back to me > later told me to file an amended return. > Now this is great, I get some money back, but I'm not > convinced at all that the dividends are effectively > connected because it goes against everything I've read. The > only thing I can think is that because its US source income > then somehow its considered effectively connected? > Can anyone tell me whether the IRS agent is correct? Or is > she just getting my hopes up of a lesser tax bill just to > crush them later? are a dealer in securities. Those dividends are taxed at the 15% rate. The IRS was playing with you. They do that from time to time........... -- Alan http://taxtopics.net << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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| I'm a non-resident alien (I used to live in the US until 1999, haven't been back since) for tax purposes who has a few investments in the US held by several brokerages and financial institutions. During 2001 I received a smallish amount of dividends from both mutual funds, bonds and a REIT during the tax year but unfortunately I didn't have a full set of W-8s on file so no tax was withheld. I didn't realise this until the IRS kindly notified me and I've since filed a late return for 2001. I filed the dividends as income not effectively connected income because it was from personal investments (which aren't connected to any company I worked for at the time) and paid the 15% I owed (I'm a Australian resident for tax purposes). All great and straight forward so far. Anyway, I was talking to an IRS tax agent a few days ago after I received a penalty for the late tax return and she claimed that I should have filed the dividends as effectively connected income which using the personal deduction would have wiped out my tax bill. She even went away for several hours to check what she was saying was true (I pointed out that the IRS website FAQ and various publications say that the income was not-effectively connected) and when she got back to me later told me to file an amended return. Now this is great, I get some money back, but I'm not convinced at all that the dividends are effectively connected because it goes against everything I've read. The only thing I can think is that because its US source income then somehow its considered effectively connected? Can anyone tell me whether the IRS agent is correct? Or is she just getting my hopes up of a lesser tax bill just to crush them later? Thanks Andy Hird andyhird[at]gmail.com << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
| Tags |
| connected, divendends, effectively |
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