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| <laxmiv[at]yahoo.com> wrote: - quote - > One of my client's mother who recently became a US resident,
This might be worth doing a bit of research on, just to> has sold her residence in India. Her basis in the house is > about $125k and she sold it for $628k. > So she has capital gains of about $500. She has invested the > $500 in some Indian Government Bond to avoid paying capital > gains tax in India. > My question is what is her tax liability in the US? Her > Indian income tax return shows zero capital gains after > making the adjustment for the investment. > Can I go by the Indian tax return for US tax purposes? Or do > I calculate capital gains on the property like any property > sold in the US? In that case, she will have capital gains of > $500K. She may be able to exculde $250K since it was her > primary residence before she moved here. eliminate anything you might be missing. I think she would be taxable on this, but remember to use US rules for figuring basis. So, she will not get the zero gain on the Indian return, some gain will have to be figured. A couple of things to think about: 1) Are we sure about the dates. For example, was she still a non-resident when the house was sold? 2) I see no reason why the housing exclusion would not apply. 3) Can any "improvements" be added to the basis? How about selling costs and such? 4) Was she married at any time while she owned the home? If the client's father died in there somewhere, his half of the house's basis might be "stepped-up". 5) With the affect of both Indian tax and US tax, would there have been some benefit in NOT rolling the gain to an Indian bond, paying some tax there, claiming a US tax credit, and also having some of the money freed-up and not subject to an Indian tax in the future. (Although the answer to this will depend on Indian treatment of capital gains, her potential tax rate there, and other questions. Also, the point may be moot at this point, since it might be too late to reverse the bond purchase. This may be a possibility, though, if this is a 2004 transaction we are talking about.) Bryan -- -------- Bryan Kellar, EA Oregon Tax Help, Inc. Portland, Oregon www.oregontaxhelp.com www.canadatax.org << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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| One of my client's mother who recently became a US resident, has sold her residence in India. Her basis in the house is about $125k and she sold it for $628k. So she has capital gains of about $500. She has invested the $500 in some Indian Government Bond to avoid paying capital gains tax in India. My question is what is her tax liability in the US? Her Indian income tax return shows zero capital gains after making the adjustment for the investment. Can I go by the Indian tax return for US tax purposes? Or do I calculate capital gains on the property like any property sold in the US? In that case, she will have capital gains of $500K. She may be able to exculde $250K since it was her primary residence before she moved here. She has no US income and very little interest income in India. Please help. Sincerely, Laxmi Vidyasagar << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
| Tags |
| capital, gains, india, residence, sold, tax |
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