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| Stan McFarland wrote: - quote - > I'm REALLY confused. I'm the owner and sole employee of a
Only as hard as you make it.> subchapter S corp. For simplicity's sake, let's assume that > I began paying myself a salary at the start of 2004, and > that I cut paychecks monthly. So, I received no paycheck in > January, and received a paycheck in February for January's > work, and one in March for February's work. Now, the IRS > says "deposit Form 941 taxes on payments made during a month > by the 15th day of the following month." OK, so that means > that I don't have to make a payment to the IRS in February, > 'cause I didn't receive a paycheck in January, and I pay the > IRS by March 15th for the paycheck I received in February. > So, this means I made one monthly payment to the IRS during > the quarter, even though I received two paychecks - once in > Feb and one in March. And this is where I get confused. If > I indicate two months of salary liability on line 2 of Form > 941, and I only made one payment to the IRS which is > indicated on line 14, then line 15 is going to show a > balance due, which I don't think is a good thing. ![]() > What basic premise am I missing? It can't be this hard. You made the IRS deposit for taxes in March for the February pay check and since you also drew a paycheck IN Marcy, you make that blue coupon deposit during the month of April so that when filing the 941 BY OR BEFORE April 30th, you're all paid up. BTW, If the quarterly total is less than 2500$, no need to make deposits; just send a check with the 941. Cheer$, Harlan Lunsford, EA n LA << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#3
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| Stan McFarland wrote: - quote - > If I indicate two months of salary liability on line 2 of Form
Ignore completely what months you're paying yourself wages> 941, and I only made one payment to the IRS which is > indicated on line 14, then line 15 is going to show a > balance due, which I don't think is a good thing. ![]() > What basic premise am I missing? It can't be this hard. *for.* It only matters what months you pay yourself wages *in.* Ignore completely what months you make 941 deposits *in.* It only matters what months you make 941 deposits *for* (as indicated by the quarter you shade on your coupon). In your scenario, you paid 2 months of wages *in* the first quarter, which go on Line 2. You made 2 months of 941 deposits *for* the first quarter, which go on Line 14. No balance due. Phoebe ![]() << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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| - quote - > If
As long as it is under $2500 due, no problem. However, if> I indicate two months of salary liability on line 2 of Form > 941, and I only made one payment to the IRS which is > indicated on line 14, then line 15 is going to show a > balance due, which I don't think is a good thing. ![]() you are asking about first quarter payroll deposits in actuality, and not just using that as an example, then you DO have a problem in that the payment and the 941 are both late. Form 941 for first quarter 2004 should have been filed by April 30. You might want to consider getting some professional help with the payroll. Carol What can one expect of a day that begins with getting out of bed. << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#1
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| "Stan McFarland" <stanmcfarland[at]comcast.net> wrote: - quote - > I'm REALLY confused. I'm the owner and sole employee of a
You put the total amounts deposited for the quarter on line> subchapter S corp. For simplicity's sake, let's assume that > I began paying myself a salary at the start of 2004, and > that I cut paychecks monthly. So, I received no paycheck in > January, and received a paycheck in February for January's > work, and one in March for February's work. Now, the IRS > says "deposit Form 941 taxes on payments made during a month > by the 15th day of the following month." OK, so that means > that I don't have to make a payment to the IRS in February, > 'cause I didn't receive a paycheck in January, and I pay the > IRS by March 15th for the paycheck I received in February. > So, this means I made one monthly payment to the IRS during > the quarter, even though I received two paychecks - once in > Feb and one in March. And this is where I get confused. If > I indicate two months of salary liability on line 2 of Form > 941, and I only made one payment to the IRS which is > indicated on line 14, then line 15 is going to show a > balance due, which I don't think is a good thing. ![]() > What basic premise am I missing? It can't be this hard. 14 despite the fact that the deposit for March was not made until April 15, or so. As far as it goes, also, you are talking about February and March (which are in the first quarter of 2004). The Form 941 for that period was due on or before April 30, 2004. By July 31, you are to have completed the one for the second quarter. Wayne Brasch, CPA, M. S. Taxation << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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| "Stan McFarland" <stanmcfarland[at]comcast.net> wrote: - quote - > I'm REALLY confused. I'm the owner and sole employee of a
You need to make the April 15th deposit and allocate it to> subchapter S corp. For simplicity's sake, let's assume that > I began paying myself a salary at the start of 2004, and > that I cut paychecks monthly. So, I received no paycheck in > January, and received a paycheck in February for January's > work, and one in March for February's work. Now, the IRS > says "deposit Form 941 taxes on payments made during a month > by the 15th day of the following month." OK, so that means > that I don't have to make a payment to the IRS in February, > 'cause I didn't receive a paycheck in January, and I pay the > IRS by March 15th for the paycheck I received in February. > So, this means I made one monthly payment to the IRS during > the quarter, even though I received two paychecks - once in > Feb and one in March. And this is where I get confused. If > I indicate two months of salary liability on line 2 of Form > 941, and I only made one payment to the IRS which is > indicated on line 14, then line 15 is going to show a > balance due, which I don't think is a good thing. ![]() > What basic premise am I missing? It can't be this hard. the FIRST quarter when you prepare the 8109 coupon! this principle works for the dates July 15, October 15, and January 15 as well. You are not alone in missing the concept of this issue! I have on many occasion had move deposits miss-allocated (on the 8109 coupon) because of the misconception of when quarter taxes accrue VS the day when they get deposited. << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#-1
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| Hi, I'm REALLY confused. I'm the owner and sole employee of a subchapter S corp. For simplicity's sake, let's assume that I began paying myself a salary at the start of 2004, and that I cut paychecks monthly. So, I received no paycheck in January, and received a paycheck in February for January's work, and one in March for February's work. Now, the IRS says "deposit Form 941 taxes on payments made during a month by the 15th day of the following month." OK, so that means that I don't have to make a payment to the IRS in February, 'cause I didn't receive a paycheck in January, and I pay the IRS by March 15th for the paycheck I received in February. So, this means I made one monthly payment to the IRS during the quarter, even though I received two paychecks - once in Feb and one in March. And this is where I get confused. If I indicate two months of salary liability on line 2 of Form 941, and I only made one payment to the IRS which is indicated on line 14, then line 15 is going to show a balance due, which I don't think is a good thing. ![]() What basic premise am I missing? It can't be this hard. Thanks, Stan McFarland << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
| Tags |
| 941, form |
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