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| David Woods wrote: - quote - > "Bob H" <dontspam[at]nospam.org> wrote:
I disagree [see my separate response for other reasons.]> > My home consists of two units, both with seperate entrances > > and living facilities (bath, kitchen, etc.). I have been > > renting the smaller unit to family over the years always at > > substantially less than FMV. My reading of the rules puts > > this unit in "vacation home" territory, as a seperate > > dwelling. > > > Since renting to family at less than FMV is defined as > > "personal use", would that attach to the sale making the > > whole property the sale of one residence (and tax-free in my > > case)? > No. > > On the other hand, Sec. 121 calls for taxpayer occupation of > > the dwelling sold. > > > It is clear there are two dwellings, but where the smaller > > is considered a personal use dwelling for the determination > > of treatment under rental//vacation home rules, I was hoping > > to dodge the tax bullet. > By all definitions, its not your primary residence. A two > unit home is a two unit home even if you own both halves and > rent half to your family. The rules allow for an allocation of the exclusion when a taxpayer sells land adjacent to his residence. I believe that this situation resembles that more than it does the sale of two UNCONNECTED/non-adjacent parcels where one is a principal residence and the other not. << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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| Bob H wrote: - quote - > My home consists of two units, both with seperate entrances
Because of the renting at less than FRV to a family member,> and living facilities (bath, kitchen, etc.). I have been > renting the smaller unit to family over the years always at > substantially less than FMV. My reading of the rules puts > this unit in "vacation home" territory, as a seperate > dwelling. > Since renting to family at less than FMV is defined as > "personal use", would that attach to the sale making the > whole property the sale of one residence (and tax-free in my > case)? > On the other hand, Sec. 121 calls for taxpayer occupation of > the dwelling sold. > It is clear there are two dwellings, but where the smaller > is considered a personal use dwelling for the determination > of treatment under rental//vacation home rules, I was hoping > to dodge the tax bullet. > Anyone has seen this before - help appreciated!! I would say that the rental part of the property was also "personally used" by you, and as an attached/adjacent property in the same sale, it qualifies to be excluded as well. << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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| "Bob H" <dontspam[at]nospam.org> wrote: - quote - > My home consists of two units, both with seperate entrances
No.> and living facilities (bath, kitchen, etc.). I have been > renting the smaller unit to family over the years always at > substantially less than FMV. My reading of the rules puts > this unit in "vacation home" territory, as a seperate > dwelling. > Since renting to family at less than FMV is defined as > "personal use", would that attach to the sale making the > whole property the sale of one residence (and tax-free in my > case)? - quote - > On the other hand, Sec. 121 calls for taxpayer occupation of
By all definitions, its not your primary residence. A two> the dwelling sold. > It is clear there are two dwellings, but where the smaller > is considered a personal use dwelling for the determination > of treatment under rental//vacation home rules, I was hoping > to dodge the tax bullet. unit home is a two unit home even if you own both halves and rent half to your family. -- David M. Woods, EA, ChFC, CLU Woods Financial Services Norwood, MA 02062 www.woods-financial.com << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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| Bob H wrote: - quote - > It is clear there are two dwellings, but where the smaller
As I recall, the 121 exclusion only applies to your> is considered a personal use dwelling for the determination > of treatment under rental//vacation home rules, I was hoping > to dodge the tax bullet. PRINCIPAL personal residence. Since it sounds like you have TWO residences, the exclusion wouldn't apply to the second one. Normally the sale of a so-called "vacation" property is a fully taxable event, save only that a loss associated with the personal use isn't deductible. MTW << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#-1
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| Hello all: My home consists of two units, both with seperate entrances and living facilities (bath, kitchen, etc.). I have been renting the smaller unit to family over the years always at substantially less than FMV. My reading of the rules puts this unit in "vacation home" territory, as a seperate dwelling. Since renting to family at less than FMV is defined as "personal use", would that attach to the sale making the whole property the sale of one residence (and tax-free in my case)? On the other hand, Sec. 121 calls for taxpayer occupation of the dwelling sold. It is clear there are two dwellings, but where the smaller is considered a personal use dwelling for the determination of treatment under rental//vacation home rules, I was hoping to dodge the tax bullet. Anyone has seen this before - help appreciated!! BH << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
| Tags |
| allocate, apt, res, sale, seperate |
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