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| Rick <sec4251[at]no.spam.yahoo.com> wrote: - quote - > In principle, if a now senior citizen had been left a house
In the above paragraph, who is the "owner" and what taxes> and used it for many years as a rental and now will pass the > title on to the couple who paid the lease payments for close > to 20 years. > And the owner has paid all the taxes on the full amount that > is being recognized as the present sales price or change of > title Lease to Buy amount - would the senior citizen, who > has not live in the house for many years, now be required to > pay Capital Gains taxes on the amount that has already had > taxes paid on it ? has he been paying? - quote - > Or would the capital gains tax aspect be a separate tax
The capital gains tax is separate from any other taxes> issue and be calculated by the dollar amount of the total > lease payments ? (property tax, etc.) on the house. It is a tax on the difference between what the "now senior citizen" paid for the house and what he received for it. He will need an accountant who is versed in accounting for rental real estate sold on lease-to-own terms to figure his basis and his sale price. If he has been treating the lease payments as straight rental income all this time, figuring it out may be especially difficult, because some part (not all) of those payments was more like an installment purchase. - quote - > Or would all of the requisite taxes have been paid because
What taxes on those monies do you think would offset the> all of the monies for the "purchase" of the house have > already had taxes paid in the year of their receipt ? capital gain? If I buy an asset with after-tax dollars, I have a basis of that amount in it, and when I sell, I owe capital gains on the difference. But the party who sold it to me also owes taxes on the difference between his basis and what he sold it to me for. The fact that I made my payments with after-tax money means nothing to his taxes. This sounds like a mess, with lots of loose ends and income that needs to be accounted for differently. You're going to need an accountant who knows this kind of deal well. -- Chris Green << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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| In principle, if a now senior citizen had been left a house and used it for many years as a rental and now will pass the title on to the couple who paid the lease payments for close to 20 years. And the owner has paid all the taxes on the full amount that is being recognized as the present sales price or change of title Lease to Buy amount - would the senior citizen, who has not live in the house for many years, now be required to pay Capital Gains taxes on the amount that has already had taxes paid on it ? Or would the capital gains tax aspect be a separate tax issue and be calculated by the dollar amount of the total lease payments ? Or would all of the requisite taxes have been paid because all of the monies for the "purchase" of the house have already had taxes paid in the year of their receipt ? Rick << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
| Tags |
| cap, gains, lease, paid, payment, purchase, question, taxes |
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