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#29
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| MTW wrote: - quote - > After giving efiling a goof hard look...
That "goof" should have been "good," but I neverthelessfind some humor in my error. <g MTW << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#28
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| Drew Edmundson wrote: - quote - > The whole point is academic for me as Intuit includes the
Probably for me, too. After giving efiling a goof hard look> information you believe is required in its license > agreement. for the past few weeks, I am once again concluding that it simply doesn't make any sense for my practice - except, perhaps, on a very occasional case-by-case basis. So, I most likely won't change my policies or procedures for 2004. MTW << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#27
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| "MTW" <mtwingcpa[at]yahoo.com> wrote: snip While not conceding the point, the snipping (by both of us) has gotten so severe and the conversation so long I think the context has been lost. I am not able to accurately reply without starting all over again. I am sure that our fellow newsgroup participants don't want that ![]() The whole point is academic for me as Intuit includes the information you believe is required in its license agreement. Drew Edmundson, CPA (NC) << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#26
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| Drew Edmundson wrote: - quote - > Here is where you lose me again. You said form 8453/8879
Consider a "typical" sentence from a policy statement: "I> was consent so I just don't understand the purpose of the > first sentence. Without the first sentence the second is > moot. Maybe I am just too dense, please explain in more > simple terms. shall not disclose your information without your CONSENT except as REQUIRED or PERMITTED by law." This appears to divide the disclosures into 3 categories. "Consent" disclosures should be obvious because the client either consents or not. "Required" disclosures must be made regardless of whether the client consents or not. "Permitted" disclosures (as I understand it) are optional disclosures that do not require client consent. (As we've discussed, it is questionable whether the concept of "permitted" disclosures applies to CPAs. As I recall, the FTC FAQ describes situations applicable to the banking industry, and I confess that I am not conversant on banking regulations or practices. <g> ) Efiling clearly falls into the CONSENT group because it is not REQUIRED by law (at least, not as of this morning <g> ) and it is not PERMITTED without client consent. Hopefully this explains my prior comment that efiling "...is never ALLOWED or PERMITTED..." because it can only take place with CONSENT. - quote - > I don't know if I agree with this or not. Initially I
I agree that we are down to splitting a very fine hair.> thought I did but the more I think about it the more I > disagree. If I understand it correctly the FTC is not > requiring you to have the contract unless you don't want to > include an opt out option. Prior to the FTC regulations, I was always comfortable with confidentiality protections if everyone in the "room" was subject to legal or licensing restraints on disclosures. So I never had a problem discussing issues with other client-appointed CPAs or attorneys or financial advisors, etc., so long as the discussion was consistent with the client's interests. However, it seems to me that the FTC regs have raised the bar by requiring a "contractual agreement" between the parties. In other words, it is no longer sufficient that there be REGULATORY protections. Now there must also be CONTRACTUAL protections. This, obviously, is my problem with efiling. It doesn't appear sufficient that I am an authorized ERO and the software company is an authorized TRANSMITTER, both subject to IRC nondisclosure requirements. Now it appears that there must also be a "contract" between us. The mere fact that we could all go to jail is, apparently, no longer sufficient from the FTC's point of view. <g In this regard, I think the FTC regs ~have~ created a "substantive" rule, subtle though it may be. <g - quote - > So if you are correct that
Agreed.> "permitted by law" doesn't apply to e-filing then I think > your disclosure of the relationship and providing an opt out > for e-filing is ok as far as the FTC is concerned. MTW << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#25
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| "MTW" <mtwingcpa[at]yahoo.com> wrote: - quote - > Drew Edmundson wrote:
Thank you. You more eloquently expressed my point. Using> > I think you missed my overall point which is that if you use > > e-mail and you have a strict reading of the FTC's rules then > > you need contracts with all the companies along the way. > > AFAIK the FTC doesn't give consumers the right to waive the > > contract requirement with service providers. > I agree that a strict reading of the FTC rules creates all > kinds of problems with everyday things that we all more/less > take for granted. For example, here's a quote from my ISP's > Terms of Service: > "You are responsible for the protection of your account and > data. You are advised that the Internet is not a secure > system. Data can be and often is, viewed by third parties. > Information of a private or confidential nature should not > be placed on the system or if it is you should take steps to > protect it using encryption technologies. [NAME OF ISP] > SPECIFICALLY DENIES ANY RESPONSIBILITY FOR THE SECURITY OF > YOUR ACCOUNT AND THE DATA STORED IN [NAME OF ISP] > FACILITIES. [name_of_isp].net is not a storage facility and > customers wishing to safeguard their data should make > back-ups and store them in a secure place. [Name of ISP] > notifies you that back-ups may remain in [Name of ISP's] > facilities and could be subject to seizure by law." > So, I guess the "contractual agreement" in this case says > that there IS NO protection against unauthorized use or > disclosure. <g> Then, I took a look at UPS's terms of service. I found > nothing in their Terms and Conditions that appeared to > explicitly address the confidentiality of data within their > custody. However, I found the following "snip" from their > Privacy Policy statement: > "Although we make reasonable efforts to limit access to our > facilities and vehicles to authorized personnel, we are not > responsible for maintaining the confidentiality of > information that is printed and placed in plain view on a > package or letter." > This may not rise to the level of being a "contract." And, > it appears to leave unclear the question of their > responsibility for the confidentiality of data INSIDE a > package. > Bottom line: It appears that I do NOT have a "contractual > agreement" with either of these service providers that > protects against the unauthorized use or disclosure of > information within their possession. UPS as an example was good, takes the heat off electronic communication as the baddy. I don't read it as strict as this but I am sure there is someone somewhere who would be upset to know UPS doesn't guarantee the confidentiality of packages. Drew Edmundson, CPA (NC) << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#24
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| "MTW" <mtwingcpa[at]yahoo.com> wrote: - quote - > Drew Edmundson wrote:
I am with you to this point because you seem to be saying> > Let me try to rephrase what you are saying. Are you saying > > that since it is not legal under WA law to disclose a > > client's information that the "allowed by law" part of the > > FTC's regulations are not met? > Yes, that's my point. > > If you have the clients consent then disclosure is permitted > > by WA. Isn't that the same as "allowed by law"? > The distinction is whether you have to OBTAIN client > consent, or whether you can simply proceed without it. For > example, many CPAs believe that you can confirm or deny the > existence of a client relationship without violating client > confidentiality. If so, then that disclosure would be > "permitted by law" and you would not have to obtain client > consent or offer an opt out. (Parenthetically, I'm not sure > that would be allowed under the WA State accountancy law, > which appears to be fairly "absolute.") that with consent from the client (which we preciously agreed was done by client signing form 8453/8879) then you are ok with WA. Without consent from the client you aren't ok with WA. The FTC makes it clear their rules don't override any rules that are more restrictive. From what you say WA's disclosure rules (like NC's) are more restrictive than the FTC's. - quote - > But, to the best of my knowledge, efiling is NEVER "allowed"
Here is where you lose me again. You said form 8453/8879> or "permitted" WITHOUT client consent. So, I question > whether the FTC FAQs related to "permitted" activities would > apply. was consent so I just don't understand the purpose of the first sentence. Without the first sentence the second is moot. Maybe I am just too dense, please explain in more simple terms. - quote - > > Regardless, I believe the phrase "permitted by law" in the
I split this line out to avoid confusion regarding my next> > regulations actually means permitted by the GLB and the > > regulations not a general "permitted by all laws, local, > > state and federal." > That's an interesting interpretation, but I disagree. response. - quote - > FWIW,
I agree with all of the preceding paragraph.> it is my understanding that the FTC rules are supposed to be > simply "procedural" (dealing with what you must disclose, > etc.) and NOT "substantive" (creating new or different > confidentiality requirements). In other words, the FTC rules > supposedly do not create ADDITIONAL confidentiality > requirements above and beyond those you are already subject > to. Rather, the FTC rules simply require that you DISCLOSE > the rules you are subject to, and offer opt-outs in certain > circumentstances. - quote - > That sounds great, except my point in this entire thread is
I don't know if I agree with this or not. Initially I> that the "contractual agreement" requirement is, in fact, a > SUBSTANTIVE requirement (in my opinion). thought I did but the more I think about it the more I disagree. If I understand it correctly the FTC is not requiring you to have the contract unless you don't want to include an opt out option. So if you are correct that "permitted by law" doesn't apply to e-filing then I think your disclosure of the relationship and providing an opt out for e-filing is ok as far as the FTC is concerned. Perhaps not good enough for WA but the FTC didn't create the WA requirements. snip Drew Edmundson, CPA (NC) << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#23
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| Drew Edmundson wrote: - quote - > Let me try to rephrase what you are saying. Are you saying
Yes, that's my point.> that since it is not legal under WA law to disclose a > client's information that the "allowed by law" part of the > FTC's regulations are not met? - quote - > If you have the clients consent then disclosure is permitted
The distinction is whether you have to OBTAIN client> by WA. Isn't that the same as "allowed by law"? consent, or whether you can simply proceed without it. For example, many CPAs believe that you can confirm or deny the existence of a client relationship without violating client confidentiality. If so, then that disclosure would be "permitted by law" and you would not have to obtain client consent or offer an opt out. (Parenthetically, I'm not sure that would be allowed under the WA State accountancy law, which appears to be fairly "absolute.") But, to the best of my knowledge, efiling is NEVER "allowed" or "permitted" WITHOUT client consent. So, I question whether the FTC FAQs related to "permitted" activities would apply. - quote - > Regardless, I believe the phrase "permitted by law" in the
That's an interesting interpretation, but I disagree. FWIW,> regulations actually means permitted by the GLB and the > regulations not a general "permitted by all laws, local, > state and federal." it is my understanding that the FTC rules are supposed to be simply "procedural" (dealing with what you must disclose, etc.) and NOT "substantive" (creating new or different confidentiality requirements). In other words, the FTC rules supposedly do not create ADDITIONAL confidentiality requirements above and beyond those you are already subject to. Rather, the FTC rules simply require that you DISCLOSE the rules you are subject to, and offer opt-outs in certain circumentstances. That sounds great, except my point in this entire thread is that the "contractual agreement" requirement is, in fact, a SUBSTANTIVE requirement (in my opinion). - quote - > Full disclosure is good but I wouldn't go into so much
That's an excellent point. I will definitely add the line> detail that few will read it. about efiling because I (obviously! <g> ) believe it is necessary. But, I might skip the proposed line about email, etc., because that is arguably already covered by another line dealing "circumstances beyond my control." MTW << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#22
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| MTW wrote: - quote - > So, anyway, since I doubt my software provider is likely to
Oops, I lied!> change their license agreement at my behest <g> ... I just received a very nice letter from the vendor in question indicating that they plan modify their license agreement to incorporate a reference to their privacy policy statement AND to specifically state that no other use will be made of efiled data unless required by law. MTW << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#21
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| "MTW" <mtwingcpa[at]yahoo.com> wrote: - quote - > Drew Edmundson wrote:
Let me try to rephrase what you are saying. Are you saying> > I am now really confused by your interpretation. Don't you > > say (below) that the 8453/8879 meets state law? If so, > > then it seems you only have to worry about the FTC and the > > IRS. The IRS participated in the creation of third party > > e-filing so shouldn't they be OK with it? So we are left > > with the FTC and its "permitted by law" language. > Yes, that's correct. My problem is with the FTC regulation. > > In light of this please revisit the example I previously > > posted from the FTC's FAQ. To me it looks similar enough > > to e-filing to fit the bill. > Respectfully, I guess I don't see the similarity. Under my > state's accountancy act (the "highest" regulation I am > subject to), efiling is neither "permitted" nor "required." > Rather, it is a discretionary act on my part, subject to > "client consent." > When choosing to offer efiling services, I could do it in > one of two ways (plus maybe there are other options). I > ~could~ file DIRECTLY with the IRS. That would likely be > most effective at preserving client confidentiality, but it > is also the most expensive method. So, being a cheapskate, I > elect to efile through third party intermediaries. > As far as the WA BOA is concerned, I figure I've met their > requirements if I obtain client consent. But, have I ALSO > met the FTC requirements? The FTC rules seem to indicate > that I must disclose (and perhaps offer an opt-out) if > disclosures are made to "unaffiliated third party" service > providers UNLESS there is a CONTRACTUAL AGREEMENT with the > third party barring further disclosure (or, perhaps, unless > the disclosure is "permitted" by law...which it isn't in my > case). that since it is not legal under WA law to disclose a client's information that the "allowed by law" part of the FTC's regulations are not met? If so I apologize for being so dense. I still don't agree we just weren't on the same page. If you have the clients consent then disclosure is permitted by WA. Isn't that the same as "allowed by law"? Regardless, I believe the phrase "permitted by law" in the regulations actually means permitted by the GLB and the regulations not a general "permitted by all laws, local, state and federal." - quote - > So, anyway, since I doubt my software provider is likely to
Full disclosure is good but I wouldn't go into so much> change their license agreement at my behest <g> , I plan to > add the following line (current draft <g> ) to my privacy > policy statement: "Electronic filing services are > facilitated through IRS authorized third party > intermediaries." I don't view this solution as ideal, but at > least it gets the issue up on the table so that a client's > consent is reasonably "informed." > I'm also going to add the following line to the "addendum" > of my policy: "I cannot guarantee the security of > communications by email, voicemail, cellular phone, FAX, or > private courier." I've noticed, by the way, that more and > more companies are adding similar comments about email, > etc., to their policies. detail that few will read it. I have recently been to a specialist (nothing serious) and everyone along the way had a HIPPA policy. Some were small type and 3 to 4 pages long. I bet most people are like me, they just sign the thing because they just don't have time to read it, quiz the medical professional, and understand it. In my case there has been no disclosure, probably mostly my fault but at least partly the medical professionals for failing to make their policies clear and concise. Drew Edmundson, CPA (NC) << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#20
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| Drew Edmundson <drewsbeagles[at]hotmail.com> wrote: - quote - > Arthur L. Rubin" <ronnirubin[at]sprintmail.com> wrote:
Oops, I stand corrected, the client can give permission if> > Drew Edmundson wrote: > > > Do you use e-mail with your clients? If so do you have a > > > confidentiality agreement with your isp and with every hop > > > on your e-mail's way to your clients? Of course not, this > > > would be impossible. > > Actually, I take exeption to your statement here, although > > it's more a legal question than a tax question. A lawyer > > SHOULD NOT send E-mail to a client absent an explicit > > waiver of confidentiality. > > > Now, financial confidentiality may be held to a lower > > standard.... > I'm not a lawyer :/ > I think you missed my overall point which is that if you use > e-mail and you have a strict reading of the FTC's rules then > you need contracts with all the companies along the way. > AFAIK the FTC doesn't give consumers the right to waive the > contract requirement with service providers. you notify them you have no control of the isp, etc. and they don't opt out of e-mail. Drew Edmundson, CPA (NC) << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#19
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| MTW wrote: - quote - > I doubt that the average jury could get their hands around
most times the jury does not have the technical competence> whether I (say) properly adjusted someone's basis after a > reorganization. But, I'll bet they would understand an > alleged breach of privacy concerns just fine. <g Your point is well taken--in an alleged case of malpractice, to really "make the call" if there is a question about whether the actions were or were not substandard. So most of us turn to looking to the parties actions for things we *do* understand and then use that to help judge credibility on the denial. For that reason, a plaintiff's attorney is going to try his darnedest to find something you did that was clearly "wrong" even if was also clearly of no negative consequence (no damages to any party). That helps the jury make the leap to believe the plaintiff's experts on the question of whether the technical matter was botched due to negligence, by giving the impression you are sloppy as regards what is required of you as a professional. To paraphrase one CPE instructor on the issue, it's not following all the rules scrupulously is going to help you so much as failing to follow any rule will *hurt* you in such a case. -- Ed Zollars, CPA Phoenix, AZ << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#18
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| Drew Edmundson wrote: - quote - > I think you missed my overall point which is that if you use
I agree that a strict reading of the FTC rules creates all> e-mail and you have a strict reading of the FTC's rules then > you need contracts with all the companies along the way. > AFAIK the FTC doesn't give consumers the right to waive the > contract requirement with service providers. kinds of problems with everyday things that we all more/less take for granted. For example, here's a quote from my ISP's Terms of Service: "You are responsible for the protection of your account and data. You are advised that the Internet is not a secure system. Data can be and often is, viewed by third parties. Information of a private or confidential nature should not be placed on the system or if it is you should take steps to protect it using encryption technologies. [NAME OF ISP] SPECIFICALLY DENIES ANY RESPONSIBILITY FOR THE SECURITY OF YOUR ACCOUNT AND THE DATA STORED IN [NAME OF ISP] FACILITIES. [name_of_isp].net is not a storage facility and customers wishing to safeguard their data should make back-ups and store them in a secure place. [Name of ISP] notifies you that back-ups may remain in [Name of ISP's] facilities and could be subject to seizure by law." So, I guess the "contractual agreement" in this case says that there IS NO protection against unauthorized use or disclosure. <g Then, I took a look at UPS's terms of service. I found nothing in their Terms and Conditions that appeared to explicitly address the confidentiality of data within their custody. However, I found the following "snip" from their Privacy Policy statement: "Although we make reasonable efforts to limit access to our facilities and vehicles to authorized personnel, we are not responsible for maintaining the confidentiality of information that is printed and placed in plain view on a package or letter." This may not rise to the level of being a "contract." And, it appears to leave unclear the question of their responsibility for the confidentiality of data INSIDE a package. Bottom line: It appears that I do NOT have a "contractual agreement" with either of these service providers that protects against the unauthorized use or disclosure of information within their possession. MTW << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#17
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| Drew Edmundson wrote: - quote - > So we are left
I forgot to mention... Lest anyone think that I live in> with the FTC and its "permitted by law" language. mortal fear of being "Abu Ghraib'd" by jack-booted government thugs from the Federal Trade Commission, I don't. <g> My concern with these regulations is, and always has been, that a plaintiff's attorney in a malpractice suit could chew you apart on the witness stand by (among other things) demonstrating that you don't ~meticulously~ follow appropriate privacy guidelines and therefore, by implication, you must not be meticulous about other aspects of your work. I doubt that the average jury could get their hands around whether I (say) properly adjusted someone's basis after a reorganization. But, I'll bet they would understand an alleged breach of privacy concerns just fine. <g MTW << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#16
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| Drew Edmundson wrote: - quote - > I am now really confused by your interpretation. Don't you
Yes, that's correct. My problem is with the FTC regulation.> say (below) that the 8453/8879 meets state law? If so, > then it seems you only have to worry about the FTC and the > IRS. The IRS participated in the creation of third party > e-filing so shouldn't they be OK with it? So we are left > with the FTC and its "permitted by law" language. - quote - > In light of this please revisit the example I previously
Respectfully, I guess I don't see the similarity. Under my> posted from the FTC's FAQ. To me it looks similar enough > to e-filing to fit the bill. state's accountancy act (the "highest" regulation I am subject to), efiling is neither "permitted" nor "required." Rather, it is a discretionary act on my part, subject to "client consent." When choosing to offer efiling services, I could do it in one of two ways (plus maybe there are other options). I ~could~ file DIRECTLY with the IRS. That would likely be most effective at preserving client confidentiality, but it is also the most expensive method. So, being a cheapskate, I elect to efile through third party intermediaries. As far as the WA BOA is concerned, I figure I've met their requirements if I obtain client consent. But, have I ALSO met the FTC requirements? The FTC rules seem to indicate that I must disclose (and perhaps offer an opt-out) if disclosures are made to "unaffiliated third party" service providers UNLESS there is a CONTRACTUAL AGREEMENT with the third party barring further disclosure (or, perhaps, unless the disclosure is "permitted" by law...which it isn't in my case). So, anyway, since I doubt my software provider is likely to change their license agreement at my behest <g> , I plan to add the following line (current draft <g> ) to my privacy policy statement: "Electronic filing services are facilitated through IRS authorized third party intermediaries." I don't view this solution as ideal, but at least it gets the issue up on the table so that a client's consent is reasonably "informed." I'm also going to add the following line to the "addendum" of my policy: "I cannot guarantee the security of communications by email, voicemail, cellular phone, FAX, or private courier." I've noticed, by the way, that more and more companies are adding similar comments about email, etc., to their policies. MTW << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#15
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| Arthur L. Rubin" <ronnirubin[at]sprintmail.com> wrote: - quote - > Drew Edmundson wrote:
I'm not a lawyer :/> > Do you use e-mail with your clients? If so do you have a > > confidentiality agreement with your isp and with every hop > > on your e-mail's way to your clients? Of course not, this > > would be impossible. > Actually, I take exeption to your statement here, although > it's more a legal question than a tax question. A lawyer > SHOULD NOT send E-mail to a client absent an explicit > waiver of confidentiality. > Now, financial confidentiality may be held to a lower > standard.... I think you missed my overall point which is that if you use e-mail and you have a strict reading of the FTC's rules then you need contracts with all the companies along the way. AFAIK the FTC doesn't give consumers the right to waive the contract requirement with service providers. Drew Edmundson, CPA (NC) << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#14
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| Drew Edmundson wrote: - quote - > Do you use e-mail with your clients? If so do you have a
Actually, I take exeption to your statement here, although> confidentiality agreement with your isp and with every hop > on your e-mail's way to your clients? Of course not, this > would be impossible. it's more a legal question than a tax question. A lawyer SHOULD NOT send E-mail to a client absent an explicit waiver of confidentiality. Now, financial confidentiality may be held to a lower standard.... << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#13
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| Ed Zollars, CPA wrote: - quote - > (I will note that some observers might
Speaking in my capacity as an "observer," I can confirm that> suspect judges may have a bias to be more receptive to such > arguments as they involve attorneys <grin> , so it's best to > let them go first.) some of us DO IN FACT harbor that suspicion. <g MTW << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#12
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| "MTW" <mtwingcpa[at]yahoo.com> wrote: - quote - > Drew Edmundson wrote:
I am now really confused by your interpretation. Don't you> > Did you see the FAQ answer from the FTC's site? It seems to > > fit the bill for e-filing. > That's the item you posted? It appears to rely on the > "PERMITTED by law" exception in the FTC rules. But this is > where the train starts coming of the tracks... <g> Under my state's accountancy law, there IS NO "permitted by > law" exception. There is only "REQUIRED by law," "standards > of the profession" (peer review, etc.), and "consent of the > client." So, I'm between a rock and a hard place. And, > accordingly, I do NOT refer to a "PERMITTED by law" > exception in my privacy policy statement (since it would be > meaningless). say (below) that the 8453/8879 meets state law? If so, then it seems you only have to worry about the FTC and the IRS. The IRS participated in the creation of third party e-filing so shouldn't they be OK with it? So we are left with the FTC and its "permitted by law" language. In light of this please revisit the example I previously posted from the FTC's FAQ. To me it looks similar enough to e-filing to fit the bill. I agree for you it won't work because you don't have the "permitted by law" language in your privacy policy. snip Drew Edmundson, CPA (NC) << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#11
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| Drew Edmundson wrote: - quote - > Did you see the FAQ answer from the FTC's site? It seems to
That's the item you posted? It appears to rely on the> fit the bill for e-filing. "PERMITTED by law" exception in the FTC rules. But this is where the train starts coming of the tracks... <g Under my state's accountancy law, there IS NO "permitted by law" exception. There is only "REQUIRED by law," "standards of the profession" (peer review, etc.), and "consent of the client." So, I'm between a rock and a hard place. And, accordingly, I do NOT refer to a "PERMITTED by law" exception in my privacy policy statement (since it would be meaningless). Now, as far as state law is concerned, the client's signature on the 8879 or 8453 should meet the "consent" requirement. But this leaves unresolved the issue of FTC compliance where an "unaffiliated third party" is involved. To comply with the FTC requirements, I continue to believe that one must either have a contractual agreement with the third party blocking unauthorized disclosure, or provide additional disclosures on the matter and/or provide the client with some kind of a formal opt-out procedure. I realize that not everyone agrees with me on this point, but not everyone is a partner in my firm. <g - quote - > On a side note, why hasn't the AICPA done what the NY bar
And, what's more, why was the AICPA (and other professional> has done? organizations) asleep at the switch when the FTC drafted its regulations? As my little rant demonstrates, trying to reconcile all of these somewhat conflicting requirements is very difficult. In my opinion, much of this nonsense could have been avoided had the profession been adequately represented at the time. MTW << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#10
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| Drew Edmundson wrote: - quote - > On a side note, why hasn't the AICPA done what the NY bar
My suspicion--had the AICPA been the plaintiff rather than> has done? the NYSBA, the decision would have been different. First, judges will be a lot more readily persuaded that the practice of law is "different" than they will that any other profession is different. Reality is that *all* professionals tend to feel their profession is "special" while others are simply money grubbing crooks who are out to take advantage of the public <grin> . So having the legal profession go first simply makes sense--now you have a better chance, once the ruling is on the record, of using that interpretation, if it is sustained on appeal, to bootstrap other professions. Second, the CPA profession wasn't in the best public relations position when GLB came down. Judges also read the papers, and appearing to back those crooked accountants after Worldcom and Enron might not have been appealing. Third, I think for the profession to have gone down that road would have been a real negative in light of the development of tax return outsourcing and coverage of the same. That could have given an additional push to not only throw out a case challenging GLB, but have caused Congress to look at specifically *INCLUDING* accountants in GLB to make the court case moot. After all, the court didn't rule that Congress *couldn't* have subjected attorneys to GLB, just that the judge didn't feel the FTC went through the proper determination to include them and that the judge didn't believe it was Cogress's intent to regulate attorneys. That makes the decision easy to undo. -- Ed Zollars, CPA Phoenix, Arizona << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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