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| - quote - > Is this a viable solution for settling the shareholders
Yes.> debt to the company? - quote - > Do you think such transactions attract the attention of the IRS
Should not attract much attention.> ... a red-flag? > (There is a deficit in accumulated earnings, and the debt to > the company is greater than the shareholders basis, so there > would be some capital gain then.) - quote - > 2) Is there a "problem" in the IRS' eyes that the company
The IRS may argue that the "loan" from the corporation to> carried this debt for more than a year (it's been kind of > like a revolving debt). the shareholder was not a loan, but instead was a "dividend" (they would have an incentive to make this argument in a year when the corporation had positive earnings). If no interest has been charged on the loan, the IRS may impute interest on the loan. This means likely nondeductible interest expense by the shareholder and taxable interest income at the corporate level. They may do this for all open tax years. With interest rates so low (and NOL's at the corporate level), this would NOT likely be a significant cost. << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#1
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| Thank you for your reply, I appreciate it! A couple of follow-up questions: 1) Is this a viable solution for settling the shareholders debt to the company? Do you think such transactions attract the attention of the IRS... a red-flag? (There is a deficit in accumulated earnings, and the debt to the company is greater than the shareholders basis, so there would be some capital gain then.) 2) Is there a "problem" in the IRS' eyes that the company carried this debt for more than a year (it's been kind of like a revolving debt). Thanks again. << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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| - quote - > However, there has been a balance carried over from one year
A distribution out of the C corp will not be a dividend if> to the next; and interest was not accrued. Now the company > is reporting a NOL for the past 2 years. > How can the company get this off the books without the > shareholder writing a check? Could it make a return of > capital distribution (since there is no profit to do regular > dividend distribution). If so, I understand that to the > shareholder, the return of capital distribution is not > taxable until it exceeds the shareholders basis... after > which it is a capital gain. the corp has a deficit in its accumulated and current earnings and profits. If the NOL's for the last 2 years wiped out all of the prior year undistributed earnings, then the C corp would have a deficit in its accumulated earnings. If the corp also has a deficit in its current year earnings, then any distributions during the current year would not be treated as dividends. If the distribution is not treated as a dividend, then it will first be treated as return of capital to the extent of the shareholder's basis in the shares. To the extent the distribution exceeds the basis, the distribution will be treated as proceeds on the sale of the stock (generally capital gain). << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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| Hi, Question: A 'C' Corporation records personal use of the company credit card by a shareholder in a "Loan to Shareholder" account. The balance in this account fluctuates as the shareholder pays the company back for these expenses. However, there has been a balance carried over from one year to the next; and interest was not accrued. Now the company is reporting a NOL for the past 2 years. How can the company get this off the books without the shareholder writing a check? Could it make a return of capital distribution (since there is no profit to do regular dividend distribution). If so, I understand that to the shareholder, the return of capital distribution is not taxable until it exceeds the shareholders basis... after which it is a capital gain. Appreciate your help and feedback. << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
| Tags |
| loan, shareholder |
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