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| - quote - > No; it's easy to create a risk-free transaction to move
That's not necessarily true. The loss in one account is> money between two accounts, but you can't predict which > account will gain and which will lose. After all, if you > could, why bother doing the losing side of the trade at all? making an equal gain in the other, and perhaps the loss-making counterpart has to exist for the gain to occur. Therefore, even if you know in advance which account is going to take the loss, there is no arbitrage possible. I have a gut feeling that there does exist such a transaction, though the exact mechanics I haven't figured out yet. My hypothesis is that one can eliminate the risk of the underlying security, and instead rely on the predictible decline in option value of a derivative. The crux of the issue is that if it does exist, then it has tremendous consequences for the IRS and current tax policy. On the other hand, since no one here knows about it, and the IRS doesn't have rules against it, then that strongly suggests it doesn't exist, and that it is just another perpetual motion machine idea. - quote - > The only technique that works reliably to move the money in
I'm only considering legitimate, publicly available> a known direction involves fraud, and it isn't the IRS you'd > have to worry about, it's a much much nastier agency. transactions. << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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| Shailesh Humbad <humbads1[at]hotmail.com> wrote: - quote - > Given this circumstance, I believe it would be possible
No; it's easy to create a risk-free transaction to move> using options to design a relatively risk-free transaction > where John incurs a loss in one account (taxable) and a > commensurate gain in another account (non-taxable). money between two accounts, but you can't predict which account will gain and which will lose. After all, if you could, why bother doing the losing side of the trade at all? - quote - > Has anyone
The only technique that works reliably to move the money in> encountered this before? Does the IRS have an opinion on > taxpayers using this strategy to avoid taxes on capital > gains and income? a known direction involves fraud, and it isn't the IRS you'd have to worry about, it's a much much nastier agency. Seth << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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| Suppose a person, John Doe, holds $10,000 in a taxable investment account, and $10,000 in a non-taxable Roth IRA investment account. During the year, John's taxable investment incurs a loss of $1,000, while the Roth IRA investment gains $1,000. Overall, at the end of the year, John's net balance is identical, ignoring transaction costs. The only change is that $1000 has been, in effect, transferred into the Roth IRA. But what is the tax consequence? As you know, gains in a Roth IRA are not taxable while they remain in the account. However, a person can deduct an unlimited amount of capital losses against capital gains in taxable accounts. Additional losses up to $3,000 per year can be deducted from ordinary income, with the remainder rolled over to future years. Therefore, if John has no other investments and is in the 28% tax bracket, he can lower his taxes by $280 by deducting the $1000 capital loss from his gross income. Gains on funds in a Roth IRA are not taxable if withdrawn after the account holder reaches age 59 1/2. Therefore, if John withdraws the $1,000 gain after that age, he has in effect avoided taxes entirely on that $1,000 of income. If John otherwise doesn't need those investment funds, then any losses in his taxable accounts that are matched by gains in his Roth IRA accounts provide him with a tax benefit, up to the limits for capital loss deductions. Given this circumstance, I believe it would be possible using options to design a relatively risk-free transaction where John incurs a loss in one account (taxable) and a commensurate gain in another account (non-taxable). I believe it could be done without running afoul of the rules for wash sales and "straddles" listed in IRS Publication 550, which seem to apply only to taxable investments. This is essentially a way to either delay taxation or avoid it entirely, by using a backdoor Roth IRA funding mechanism. Is the logic of this loophole valid? Has anyone encountered this before? Does the IRS have an opinion on taxpayers using this strategy to avoid taxes on capital gains and income? Regards, Shailesh << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
| Tags |
| capital, loophole, loss |
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