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#3
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| - quote - > However, even if the person were a "regular and continuous"
The "initial income" that the publisher pays an author> author, I still don't see why SE tax would apply to the > ROYALTIES. SE tax applies to the initial income paid for > the book when it went to be published - and then it's DONE. > Royalties (book or film or TV show) are paid years AFTER - before the book is published is an advance against future royalties. All the income that an author ever gets from a book is "royalties." Bob Sandler (erstwhile one-book author) << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#2
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| A wrote: - quote - > "Dick Adams" <rdadams[at]smart.net> wrote:
However, even if the person were a "regular and continuous"> > My position is that writing ONE book does not put someone > > in the occupational category of an author and, thus, the > > revenues should be other income. I just have not gotten > > anyone to agree with me. > Well the Tax Court agreed with Dick: > Wilbur R. Langford and Anna L. Langford v. Commissioner > 55 TCM 1267, Filed July 19, 1988 > -------------------------- > It has been respondent's long-standing position that "If an > individual writes only one book as a sideline and never > revises it, he would not be considered to be 'regularly > engaged' in an occupation or profession and his royalties > therefrom would not be considered net earnings from > self-employment." > We hold, therefore, that petitioner was not in the trade or > business of being an author in 1976 or 1977 and that the > royalty income received by her in 1983 attributable to her > work in the earlier years is not net earnings from > self-employment and not subject to self-employment tax. > ---------------------------------------------------------- author, I still don't see why SE tax would apply to the ROYALTIES. SE tax applies to the initial income paid for the book when it went to be published - and then it's DONE. Royalties (book or film or TV show) are paid years AFTER - sometimes after the taxpayer has even changed professions (if they have had no successes since)! Except for oil or gas working interests, I don't see where royalties are SE taxable by definition. << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#1
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| A <a[at]nospam.com> wrote: - quote - > It has been respondent's long-standing position that "If an
In my opinion the most significant element in that statement> individual writes only one book as a sideline and never > revises it, he would not be considered to be 'regularly > engaged' in an occupation or profession and his royalties > therefrom would not be considered net earnings from > self-employment." is "as a sideline," not "one." My guess is that this still comes down to a question of facts and circumstances, rather than a mere mechanical count. MTW << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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| "Dick Adams" <rdadams[at]smart.net> wrote: - quote - > My position is that writing ONE book does not put someone
Well the Tax Court agreed with Dick:> in the occupational category of an author and, thus, the > revenues should be other income. I just have not gotten > anyone to agree with me. Wilbur R. Langford and Anna L. Langford v. Commissioner 55 TCM 1267, Filed July 19, 1988 -------------------------- It has been respondent's long-standing position that "If an individual writes only one book as a sideline and never revises it, he would not be considered to be 'regularly engaged' in an occupation or profession and his royalties therefrom would not be considered net earnings from self-employment." We hold, therefore, that petitioner was not in the trade or business of being an author in 1976 or 1977 and that the royalty income received by her in 1983 attributable to her work in the earlier years is not net earnings from self-employment and not subject to self-employment tax. -------------------------- << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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#-1
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| My childbride published a book around 1990. "Surnames for Women - A Decision-Making Guide" by Susan J. Kupper, Ph.D. She still gets annual checks from the publisher and from copy services for use in academic reading collections. When she was working on the book, she had no income so child care expenses were not deductible. When the royalties began, our older son was in elementary school so there were no such expenses. But they are Schedule C income subject to SE tax. My position is that writing ONE book does not put someone in the occupational category of an author and, thus, the revenues should be other income. I just have not gotten anyone to agree with me. Questions: 1) If she had sold me the copyright for $5,000, would that transaction not have been non-taxable because it would have been a transaction between spouses? 2) Given the $5,000 could not have been amortized because it was never taxed, would not the royalties be other income? 3) What if she had gifted the copyright to an educational trust for our sons? Now, as an auditor, I would laugh at anyone who would try this. But I'd like some cites for why. Dick << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |