pbsane[at]hotmail.com (psane) wrote:

- quote -

No. If you wanted a loss, you should have sold the
higher-priced shares.

Similarly, if they were all in the same account, you would
have to specify which lot you wanted sold. If you don't
specify, I believe you're presumed to be selling the oldest
ones.

- quote -

I don't think so.

--
Barry Margolin, barmar[at]alum.mit.edu
Arlington, MA

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pbsane[at]hotmail.com (psane) writes:

- quote -

No, you cannot. Because you sold the shares in account #1,
it is impossible for you to have sold shares that were in
account #2 or #3. Thus you must use the basis of the shares
in account #1 to compute your gain/loss.

- quote -

Doesn't matter.

- quote -

It may change the amount of the gain or loss and also
how much earned income you recognize from the sale,
but it won't change the face that you use the basis, etc.
of the shares in account #1 to compute all that.

- quote -

If you're going to ask for free advice here, you
had better be prepared to read your answer here.

--
Rich Carreiro rlcarr[at]animato.arlington.ma.us

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I had the a certain security (stock) in 3 different accounts
with 3 different institutions.

I sold some from account # 1 for a (little) profit. The
security in Account #2 and #3 was bought for the price
higher than what I sold the security (from account #1) for.

As far as tax return is concerned can I declare a loss ??
This would have happened if I had sold it from Account #2 or
#3 anyway.

Security in question in all these 3 accounts was acquired
with ESPP (Employee stock purchase plan). Does this change
the answer to above question.

Reply to my email address will be appreciated.

Thanks.

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