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| - quote - > I am in a peculiar situation (I think anyway!) and am hoping
If I had "equitable " ownership of the shares all these> someone could provide me some guidance. For the last five > years, I worked for a start-up computer company. I was > always treated as an owner of the company (10%) but the > company being rather small neglected to list me correctly as > an owner with the state (Louisiana). I was naive enough to > let this persist. Approximately one year ago, the company > was sold to a larger firm. A sum of cash was paid at the > closing and two subsequent payments were scheduled on an > "earn-out basis". I paid the capital gains tax on the first > portion of the money disbursed at the closing. This past > month I received my second disbursement. I understand that > to avoid penalty fees I should pay some or all of the CG > payment for 2003 next month. I would be more than happy to > do so but I am curious if I should be treating this as > capital gains. Since I was not an official owner (and > therefore not a party to the sale agreement), I am being > paid indirectly by the (former) majority owner. Should I > treat this as CG, income, or something entirely different? years I might consider taking the capital gains view and date my ownership accordingly. Unless it comes up you may never have to defend a contrary view. Not if you take a position in reliance upon tax or legal counsel you cut your expose to any penalities way down--but not interest if it is disallowed. My position might be the company would not be paying me out if it hadn't have had an equitable ownership of said shares. As an aside it might make sense to ask the former majority owner how his accontant treated the situation lest you open up an unnecessary can of worms--then again don't ask questions if you don't want the answer--think! << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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| I am in a peculiar situation (I think anyway!) and am hoping someone could provide me some guidance. For the last five years, I worked for a start-up computer company. I was always treated as an owner of the company (10%) but the company being rather small neglected to list me correctly as an owner with the state (Louisiana). I was naive enough to let this persist. Approximately one year ago, the company was sold to a larger firm. A sum of cash was paid at the closing and two subsequent payments were scheduled on an "earn-out basis". I paid the capital gains tax on the first portion of the money disbursed at the closing. This past month I received my second disbursement. I understand that to avoid penalty fees I should pay some or all of the CG payment for 2003 next month. I would be more than happy to do so but I am curious if I should be treating this as capital gains. Since I was not an official owner (and therefore not a party to the sale agreement), I am being paid indirectly by the (former) majority owner. Should I treat this as CG, income, or something entirely different? Thank you! JMR << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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