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| ligrab[at]lycos.co.uk (Eliah Grabbet) wrote: [snip] - quote - > The treaty overrules domestic tax law, if there is a conflict.
Technically, this statement is not true. when there is aconflict between a treaty and tax law, the court first tries to reconcile the two. If it can not reconcile the two, then the one with the most current date rules. Therefore, a treaty does not always trump tax law. Alan http://taxtopics.net << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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| "Eliah Grabbet" <eligrab[at]lycos.co.uk> wrote: - quote - > The OP should also read (or have his tax preparer read) the
Don't be so sure. Courts applied the last in time theory on> US-UK double taxation treaty. It should determine which part > of his income is taxable in which country. In the best case > each part will only be taxable in one country, so there will > not be any need to for foreign tax credit. The treaty > overrules domestic tax law, if there is a conflict. a conflict recently between the US-Canada treaty and the old AMT limitation on foreign tax credits. The treaty lost. -- David M. Woods, EA Boston, MA 02109 Postings here are general information only and not to be relied upon as advice. << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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| Thanks Dean. Can you explain a little more about 'tax credit'? Sorry if that's an obvious question but I know nothing about taxes. << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |
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| Hi - I am a UK citizen married to a UK citizen. I will be emigrating to the US soon but as I am a Web developer I will be keeping some of my UK clients and (hopefully) getting some US clients also. I envisage paying US tax as that would seem most straight forward but what do I need to do legally speaking about UK funds being paid into a UK bank and then tranfered to my US account? Where do I pay taxes on this income? Thanks in advance Steve << -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << -------------------------------------------------> |