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  #4  
Old 07-31-2003, 10:10 PM
Dan Evans
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Posts: n/a
Default Re: There ought to be a law . . .

"Reno Master" <RenoMaster2003[at]hotmail.com> wrote:

- quote -

> [1] Isn't there some time limit imposed on the IRS for
> notifying people and collecting monies "owed" so they can't
> terrorize the citizenry like this? If not, there should be!


Yes, there is a ten year statute of limitations on
collections (subject to all sorts of exceptions). The ten
years doesn't begin to run until assessment, and there could
be taxes assessed for up to three years after a return is
filed, so it is quite possible for the IRS to be collecting
based on a 1989 return.

- quote -

> [2] Aren't they at least obliged to provide a copy of the
> form in-question and to explain why there's money owed?


No. However, you have the right to request a transcript,
which will give you that information.

- quote -

> [3] How should we handle this as we're not inclined to let
> this go unquestioned (especially after their misleading
> first missive)?!?


As others have pointed out, you need the help of a
professional experienced in IRS collection matters, probably
a CPA or EA. (A lawyer is probably overkill at the moment,
unless it turns out that there is something very wrong that
has to be litigated.)

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  #3  
Old 07-31-2003, 09:50 PM
Frederick Jorden
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Posts: n/a
Default Re: There ought to be a law . . .

Harlan Lunsford wrote:
- quote -

> Reno Master wrote:

> > Or at least a regulation! The IRS recently informed my wife
> > and me (without providing a copy of the 13-year-old form
> > in-question or sufficiently detailed justification for their
> > action) that they were applying the overpayment on our 2000
> > tax return to my wife's 1989!!! 1040. Btw, this only became
> > apparent in their third missive as the first one implied
> > there was something wrong with our 2000 return, per se,
> > while the second notified us of the adjustment to our 2001
> > return to account for the un-applying of the overpayment.
> > This notification and action is coming out of left field as
> > far as we're concerned, as this is the first time my wife's
> > heard that she owes anything for 1989. Why didn't she hear
> > about this a decade ago when they were reviewing 1989
> > returns?!? Naturally, she no longer has a copy of that
> > year's return.
> > > [1] Isn't there some time limit imposed on the IRS for

> > notifying people and collecting monies "owed" so they can't
> > terrorize the citizenry like this? If not, there should be!
> > > [2] Aren't they at least obliged to provide a copy of the

> > form in-question and to explain why there's money owed?
> > > [3] How should we handle this as we're not inclined to let

> > this go unquestioned (especially after their misleading
> > first missive)?!?


> Here is a clear cut case of getting tax professional help,
> either an Enrolled Agent (EA) or Certified Public
> Accountant (CPA) who specializes in representation work.
> See your local Yellow Pages (TM) for one.
> BTW, the IRS did notify your wife about the tax debt.
> Some time; some how.


One possible cause for lack of notice is a change of
address. I had a client who did not receive notice of an
audit on a return they filed when they lived in Texas. They
later moved to Virginia and filed timely returns with the
correct new address. The audit notices were returned to the
IRS because the post office change of address expires after
six month. Seems the IRS folks did not know how to use the
computer to look up an address on a subsequent return. I was
able to have the case reopened and corrected.

--
Frederick E. Jorden http://Tax-Accounting-Payroll.com
7825 Midlothian Tpk - 207 Richmond, VA 23235-5247 EMAIL knowtax[at]bigfoot.com
(804) 320-6210 FAX (804) 320-6211

<< -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << ------------------------------------------------->
  #2  
Old 07-31-2003, 09:50 PM
D. Stussy
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default Re: There ought to be a law . . .

Reno Master wrote:

- quote -

> Or at least a regulation! The IRS recently informed my wife
> and me (without providing a copy of the 13-year-old form
> in-question or sufficiently detailed justification for their
> action) that they were applying the overpayment on our 2000
> tax return to my wife's 1989!!! 1040. Btw, this only became
> apparent in their third missive as the first one implied
> there was something wrong with our 2000 return, per se,
> while the second notified us of the adjustment to our 2001
> return to account for the un-applying of the overpayment.
> This notification and action is coming out of left field as
> far as we're concerned, as this is the first time my wife's
> heard that she owes anything for 1989. Why didn't she hear
> about this a decade ago when they were reviewing 1989
> returns?!? Naturally, she no longer has a copy of that
> year's return.
> [1] Isn't there some time limit imposed on the IRS for
> notifying people and collecting monies "owed" so they can't
> terrorize the citizenry like this? If not, there should be!


There is: However, collection has a period of limitations
of TEN (10) years from the date of ASSESSMENT (which can be
later than the date the return was filed, especially if
something was changed later).

- quote -

> [2] Aren't they at least obliged to provide a copy of the
> form in-question and to explain why there's money owed?


They should have provided an explanation.

- quote -

> [3] How should we handle this as we're not inclined to let
> this go unquestioned (especially after their misleading
> first missive)?!?


You need to find out what's going on for tax year 1989.

<< -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << ------------------------------------------------->
  #1  
Old 07-31-2003, 04:24 AM
Harlan Lunsford
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default Re: There ought to be a law . . .

Reno Master wrote:

- quote -

> Or at least a regulation! The IRS recently informed my wife
> and me (without providing a copy of the 13-year-old form
> in-question or sufficiently detailed justification for their
> action) that they were applying the overpayment on our 2000
> tax return to my wife's 1989!!! 1040. Btw, this only became
> apparent in their third missive as the first one implied
> there was something wrong with our 2000 return, per se,
> while the second notified us of the adjustment to our 2001
> return to account for the un-applying of the overpayment.
> This notification and action is coming out of left field as
> far as we're concerned, as this is the first time my wife's
> heard that she owes anything for 1989. Why didn't she hear
> about this a decade ago when they were reviewing 1989
> returns?!? Naturally, she no longer has a copy of that
> year's return.
> [1] Isn't there some time limit imposed on the IRS for
> notifying people and collecting monies "owed" so they can't
> terrorize the citizenry like this? If not, there should be!
> [2] Aren't they at least obliged to provide a copy of the
> form in-question and to explain why there's money owed?
> [3] How should we handle this as we're not inclined to let
> this go unquestioned (especially after their misleading
> first missive)?!?


Here is a clear cut case of getting tax professional help,
either an Enrolled Agent (EA) or Certified Public
Accountant (CPA) who specializes in representation work.
See your local Yellow Pages (TM) for one.

BTW, the IRS did notify your wife about the tax debt.
Some time; some how.

Cheer$,
Harlan LUnsford, EA in LA

<< -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << ------------------------------------------------->
 
Old 07-31-2003, 03:46 AM
Phil Marti
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default Re: There ought to be a law . . .

"Reno Master" <RenoMaster2003[at]hotmail.com> writes:

- quote -

> The IRS recently informed my wife
> and me (without providing a copy of the 13-year-old form
> in-question or sufficiently detailed justification for their
> action) that they were applying the overpayment on our 2000
> tax return to my wife's 1989!!!


I suspect that you and your wife weren't married in 1989 and
that she was married to, and filed a joint return with,
someone else for 1989. Step one is to call the IRS and ask
what the balance due for 1989 represents.

Phil Marti
Topeka, KS

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  #-1  
Old 07-30-2003, 07:57 PM
Reno Master
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default There ought to be a law . . .

Or at least a regulation! The IRS recently informed my wife
and me (without providing a copy of the 13-year-old form
in-question or sufficiently detailed justification for their
action) that they were applying the overpayment on our 2000
tax return to my wife's 1989!!! 1040. Btw, this only became
apparent in their third missive as the first one implied
there was something wrong with our 2000 return, per se,
while the second notified us of the adjustment to our 2001
return to account for the un-applying of the overpayment.
This notification and action is coming out of left field as
far as we're concerned, as this is the first time my wife's
heard that she owes anything for 1989. Why didn't she hear
about this a decade ago when they were reviewing 1989
returns?!? Naturally, she no longer has a copy of that
year's return.

[1] Isn't there some time limit imposed on the IRS for
notifying people and collecting monies "owed" so they can't
terrorize the citizenry like this? If not, there should be!

[2] Aren't they at least obliged to provide a copy of the
form in-question and to explain why there's money owed?

[3] How should we handle this as we're not inclined to let
this go unquestioned (especially after their misleading
first missive)?!?

<< -------------------------------------------------> << The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting > << messages to this newsgroup are at www.asktax.org > << ------------------------------------------------->
 

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