Nope. There are no dividends/distributions on ESO's.

I did some off-line calculations on YTD Total Return for the full portfolio
and believe the following:

1. The ESO's seem to be excluded in the overall calculation - regardless of
the fact that they had a return. In this case, their return was negative.
(This explains why I had an actual loss while Money showed a positive
return). They showed N/A for the full 2006 period as well as the current
period.
2. The money fund may be a little different. There has been no return yet
entered for the year. I do not know why it shows N/A rather than 0% however.
(It did show a positive percent for the full 2006 period.)

Money's definition for "Total Return - YTD" follows:
"Current market value plus income, minus beginning market value, divided by
beginning market value"

It says nothing about excluding any stock types (such as options). The only
reason I can see for N/A would be if "beginning market value" was 0 (cannot
divide by 0). In all cases the market value on 12/31/06 was a non-zero
value and, in fact, was positive as well.

The only thing I can presume is that they are excluded strictly because of
their stock type, i.e. they are options with no original cost basis.
However, there vesting date is well before last year, i.e. there has been a
valid market value for some time.

John G.

"Cal Learner-- MVP" <via_newsgroup[at]please.tnx> wrote in message
news:8nk9u2l0n9m1bn8e8lu54om560dgsfnpuv[at]4ax.com...
- quote -

In microsoft.public.money, John A. Gallagher wrote:

- quote -

Would dividends/distributions explain that difference?


- quote -

I am using MS Money 2007 and was just looking at my Portfolio Manager. For
the year, I have lost money - yet the YTD Total Return still remains
positive for my total portfolio.

When I added YTD Total Return as a column, I noticed that a number of
positions - particularly in-the-money employee stock options and money
funds - have N/A as the YTD Total Return. Are these items simply excluded
from all calculations (i.e. both as a base value for last years's end and
for current value) to arrive at the YTD Total Return? If so, why? (Clearly
they had a market value at EOY 2006 and a different one now.)

Can someone explain?

John G.