(oops. Fired off the empty one. I hate it when I do that.)

I'd transfer the $100,000 deposit to the Asset account. (The Payee for that
$100,000 is whoever you gave the money too, but I wouldn't worry so much
about that.) Then I'd reduce that $400,000 initial balance in the Asset
account (essentially a transfer from the loan proceeds, but Money also
doesn't provide an easy way to do that) to $300,000. The initial $300,000
plus the transferred in $100,000 = $400,000.

I don't track vehicles as an asset, but if I did, I'd do the same. Purchase
transaction is a split with elements kinda like:

$xx,xxx Transfer:AutoAsAsset (the negotiated purchase cost)
$y,yyy Taxes:Sales Taxes, et al.
($a,aaa) Transfer:TradedAutoAsAsset (the trade in value after any loan
payoff--I'd enter that elsewhere as, in part, a transfer from the asset
account)
($bb,bbb) Other Income:Loan Proceeds memo: proceeds from NewAutoLoan account
(the new loan but not a Transfer in since Money makes that just too hard)
----------
$c,ccc (amount of cash you put into the deal)

"Luminary" <Luminary[at]discussions.microsoft.com> wrote in message
news:21136188-B610-438D-9C3C-08B19EC5FEF7[at]microsoft.com...
- quote -

"Luminary" <Luminary[at]discussions.microsoft.com> wrote in message
news:21136188-B610-438D-9C3C-08B19EC5FEF7[at]microsoft.com...
- quote -

I have recently purchased a house and am trying to set all details in Mny06.

Lets assume:
House cost: $400,000
Loan: $300,000
Deposit: $100,000

I have created a 'house' asset and set the purchase value at 400k.
I have created a loan for the house at 300k with automated calculation of
repayments with the bank set as the payee.

This all works well. I have pretty bar charts that show my equity and the
loan is tracked accurately. All good (the bar chart even updates - slowly!)

My problem is, how do I categorise my expenditure of $100,000? And who do I
set the payee? The confusing issue is that I didn't really have an expense of
100k, I really only transferred money from a savings account. However, if I
do a 'transfer to asset' I end up increasing the value of the house by 100k.

I have had the same problem with buying cars. For them I set the purchase
price as 0 and then did a transfer of the deposit - but I don't think this
really the right thing to do (if anything, I lose my 'purchase cost').

Any thoughts on this? Money doesn't seem to manage asset purchases as
tightly as I had hoped.

Thanks in advance.