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#5
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| On Jan 14, 7:13*am, JoeTaxpayer <JoeTaxpa...[at]comcast.net> wrote: - quote - > Ron Peterson wrote:
It's a shirt-sleeve calculation based on the average debt to book> > Conventionally, investors are asked to split their investment between > > stocks and bonds. If this were to be done using only S&P 500 stocks > > and bonds, the average investor would be only 25% into bonds since > > those companies aren't highly leveraged. > Can you explain this? Why 25%? Where'd that number come from? > Joe ratio and average price to book ratio of the S&P 500 stocks. Much financial debt comes from government obligations and home loans so I am not sure what the entire investing universe looks like. -- Ron |
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#4
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| Ron Peterson wrote: - quote - > Conventionally, investors are asked to split their investment between
Can you explain this? Why 25%? Where'd that number come from?> stocks and bonds. If this were to be done using only S&P 500 stocks > and bonds, the average investor would be only 25% into bonds since > those companies aren't highly leveraged. Joe |
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#3
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| On Jan 3, 8:29*am, beliav...[at]aol.com wrote: - quote - > Prompted by the financial crisis, the latest New York Times magazine http://www.fooledbyrandomness.com/ is referenced in the article and> has a long article "Risk Mismanagement" by Joe Nocerahttp://www.nytimes.com/2009/01/04/magazine/04risk-t.htmlabout the use > (some argue misuse) of the Value at Risk (VaR) measure by financial > institutions. gives a better insight into the problems of risk analysis. Risk is relative because we don't know when the very unusual things will occur. Conventionally, investors are asked to split their investment between stocks and bonds. If this were to be done using only S&P 500 stocks and bonds, the average investor would be only 25% into bonds since those companies aren't highly leveraged. -- Ron |
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#2
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| On Jan 5, 12:49*am, Igor Chudov <ichu...[at]algebra.com> wrote: - quote - > The article that beliavsky cited is, in fact, very interesting and
Value at Risk and Expected Shortfall can be estimated for return> well researched, as are most NY Times articles these days. > At the core of the issue is that Value at Risk metric assumes that > asset returns are normally distributed and their correlations are > knowable and do not change much. The article expounded quite a bit on > the former (normal distribution), citing Nassim Taleb and other > luminaries in debunking the idea of normally distributed > returns. Which is quite correct. distributions other than the normal distribution, as discussed in a paper "Measuring financial risk : comparison of alternative procedures to estimate VaR and ES" at http://e-archivo.uc3m.es/dspace/bits...1/ws087326.pdf . Taleb specializes in attacking straw men. |
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#1
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| The article that beliavsky cited is, in fact, very interesting and well researched, as are most NY Times articles these days. At the core of the issue is that Value at Risk metric assumes that asset returns are normally distributed and their correlations are knowable and do not change much. The article expounded quite a bit on the former (normal distribution), citing Nassim Taleb and other luminaries in debunking the idea of normally distributed returns. Which is quite correct. What I would like to do is to attract attention to the second issue, which is correlations. As a result of assuming that correlations are knowable and do not change, the risk of a portfolio comprised of various such assets, was estimated to be considerably lower than the risk of owning one such asset, due to those correlations. For example, the returns of Ukrainian state debt would be not too correlated with portfolios comprized of Arizona Alt-A mortgages. So if you mix Arizona mortgages with Ukrainian debt, you could get decent return but low value at risk. So your VaR analysis told you that it would be a relatively safe thing to do to borrow some money, using these assets as colateral. As we now know, that was not the case and they all were subject to credit risk. In the crisis, as we heard, "all correlations went to 1" and all sorts of securities started losing money in tandem. Which was a mathematically impossible event, under assumptions of wrong models used. Unlike those giddy times, now everyone is afraid of everything, and it is a great time to invest prudently (not using too much leverage). i |
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| On Jan 3, 9:29*am, beliav...[at]aol.com wrote: - quote - > Prompted by the financial crisis, the latest New York Times magazine
Asking your indulgences, with an eye to a happy start to a new year, a> has a long article "Risk Mismanagement" little humor from the farm .... The other day, I saw a duck crossing the road. Curious about this, because I thought only chickens crossed roads, I ambled over and got a rare exclusive interview with the duck. "Chickens are talked about," he explained, "because they're hit by speeding tricycles more often. Us ducks hardly ever get hit." "Are chickens dumber than ducks?" I asked. "Oh, no!" the duck said, "They're much smarter, and have PhD's in mathematics!" Puzzled, I asked, "Well, if chickens are smarter, how come they get hit more often?" The duck smiled. "They use probability theory and virtual risk management models. Then they strut around in circles, and never see the actual tricycle that creams 'em. We ducks are taught to look both ways before making our next move, and walk in a straight line." |
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#-1
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| Prompted by the financial crisis, the latest New York Times magazine has a long article "Risk Mismanagement" by Joe Nocera http://www.nytimes.com/2009/01/04/ma.../04risk-t.html about the use (some argue misuse) of the Value at Risk (VaR) measure by financial institutions. A 99% VaR of $100 K for a 1 month time horizon is a forecast that 99% of the time, the loss on a portfolio will be less than or equal to $100,000. The article notes a defect of VaR -- it says the losses in the worst 1% of scenarios will be worse than a certain amount (in this example $100 K), but it ignores how much worse they could be. A risk measure called "expected shortfall" is defined to be the expected loss for a specified time horizon and quantile (such as 1 month and 1%). Unlike VaR, it does depend on the magnitude of the losses in the left tail. The Wikipedia article http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Expected_shortfall defines it and presents examples of its calculation. Researchers in risk management generally consider it a better risk measure than VaR, and I wonder why the NYT article does not mention it in a ten-page article. Risk measure are relevant to individual investors as well as investment banks. Given a method of simulating returns (either drawing from historical returns or using a parametric distribution such as the normal), one can estimate the expected shortfall of an investment strategy in meeting some liability. For example, one could estimate the expected shortfall from investing a $50K lump sum in the stock market for 10 years and selling 25% of the portfolio over each of the next 4 years in order to pay annual college expenses of $25 K. One would need a distribution of stock market returns, perhaps normally distributed with annualized mean of 8% and standard deviation of 16%. Currently, financial planning software usually quantifies risk by forecasting the probability of an investment strategy succeeding, for example the probability of not running out of money over 20 years given an initial withdrawal of 4% of the portfolio, increased annually at the rate of inflation. This risk measure, like VaR, ignores the magnitude of the failure when the failure occurs. It treats running out of money in year 5 and year 19 as the same. An expected shortfall measure may be better. |
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| article, nyt, risk |
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