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#27
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| On Aug 17, 4:04 am, "Default User" <defaultuse...[at]yahoo.com> wrote: - quote - > Elizabeth Richardson wrote: > > My sister-in-law lives in Dallas and says she pays $1.99 at Costco. > That's not a public source. > Brian www.dallasgasprices.com has a message board on which numerous people have reported prices as low as $1.96 to $1.99 at both Wal-Mart and Costco. Admitedly, the average price reported is closer to $2.50. |
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#26
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| Elizabeth Richardson wrote: - quote - > "Default User" <defaultuserbr[at]yahoo.com> wrote in message
That's not a public source.> news:5ijl7kF3pf7drU1[at]mid.individual.net... > > Elizabeth Richardson wrote: > > > Where are these places? The cheapest listed anywhere in Texas here: > > My sister-in-law lives in Dallas and says she pays $1.99 at Costco. Brian -- If televison's a babysitter, the Internet is a drunk librarian who won't shut up. -- Dorothy Gambrell (http://catandgirl.com) |
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#25
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| "Default User" <defaultuserbr[at]yahoo.com> wrote in message news:5ijl7kF3pf7drU1[at]mid.individual.net... - quote - > Elizabeth Richardson wrote:
My sister-in-law lives in Dallas and says she pays $1.99 at Costco.> Where are these places? The cheapest listed anywhere in Texas here: Elizabeth Richardson |
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#24
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| Oh sorry, the disclosure... 1. Bachelor of Science in Economics. 2. Staunch Libertarian |
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#23
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| By providing a "guarantee" that these securities will be repurchased, FNMA reduces the risk taken on by the lender. As we well know, lenders take on risk in exchange for interest. Less risk = lower interest, and vice-versa. In the absence of FNMA the lenders would have no guarantee that the mortgages would be bought and therefore assume more risk. Naturally, they would charge a higher interest rate. In this way it is a gov't subsidy. Like JOE said, subsidies require a wealth transfer, and there is one here too. Just not on the surface. FNMA takes money from taxpayers and gives it to borrowers in the form of an interest rate that would otherwise be higher. My econ professors always told me to always ask: In the absence of gov't intervention, would all parties still act in the same manner? If FNMA were a non-gov't agency and they weren't backed by the US Gov't would they still engage in this action? Probably not. If they would we wouldn't need a gov't agency with red tape and inflated budgets in teh first place. Smart entrepreneurs everywhere would be chomping at the bit to buy these mortgages (at these rates, risk levels, etc). http://www.tutor2u.net/economics/con..._subsidies.htm has a pretty clean explanation. In our case the variable cost is the cost (or expected cost) of default. Obviously, producers expand their output by lowering interest rates to entice borrowers. |
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#22
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| Elizabeth Richardson wrote: - quote - > "Elizabeth Richardson" <erichktn[at]worldnet.att.net> wrote in message
Where are these places? The cheapest listed anywhere in Texas here:> news:R%Zwi.38611$ax1.13906[at]bgtnsc05-news.ops.worldnet.att.net... > > > Yes, you were saying 5-10%, I was saying more than 10%, or more than > double > > the difference of 5%. Is that really splitting hairs? I think not, > > else > you > > have a very different definition of splitting hairs. > > And I might edit to add that the example difference is nearly 14%, > where the comparison was to an expensive part of the country. The > disparity grows if you want to compare to places in Texas where the > price of gas is under $2.00. <http://www.texasgasprices.com/ Is $2.38. Brian -- If televison's a babysitter, the Internet is a drunk librarian who won't shut up. -- Dorothy Gambrell (http://catandgirl.com) |
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#21
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| joetaxpayer wrote: - quote - > I get it, maybe. Maybe I am hung up by the fact that this could have
Joe,> happened completely without government involvement. Securitization of > mortgages requires no government guarantee, just, perhaps, a third party > auditing to be sure the mortgages were originated using certain > guidelines. If you buy into the fact that there should be a difference in yields between corporate bonds and Treasury bonds, it's essentially the same idea. Interest rates on mortgages that can be sold to the GSEs are lower, because there's this "implicit guarantee" that the federal government would bail out them out (using our tax dollars). The result is that the GSEs (and their shareholders) make more money. A similar scenario is FDIC protection. FDIC-insured money-market funds pay lower interest rates. Put another way: the lenders can borrow money from depositors and pay lower rates, earning more net interest income when they then loan that money out. Those lenders are receiving a subsidy because FDIC, historically, hasn't been self-funding (S&L crisis for example). Bond subsidies happen as well at the local level with municipal bonds, and the macro effect is more visible. General obligation (GO) munis are backed by the taxing power of the local municipality, whereas revenue bonds are backed by revenues of a specific project, such as an airport. When a new GO offering is authorized, it affects the credit rating of the issuing municipality. With more GOs tied to a given tax base, future bonds must offer higher interest rates, which is to say, the local taxpayers need to pay more of their tax money to borrowers (as interest) over the life of the bonds. So if an airport bond is GO rather than a revenue bond, the airport is being subsidized by local taxpayers. Elle -- sorry, it's not me, it's just Econ-101 terminology. Don't believe me though, try editing out that Wikipedia page towards your narrow view of "subsidy" and see how fast some PhD from Wharton undoes it. -Tad |
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#20
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| Mark Freeland wrote: - quote - > Alan Greenspan, 2004.
First, Mark, thanks for the link. You continue to amaze me with the> http://www.federalreserve.gov/boardd...24/default.htm > In other words, the quasi-governmental nature of the GSEs accounts for > lower-than-market costs of the loaned money - this is more than your "good > housekeeping seal of approval" due to mortgages meet higher standards. Some > of that subsidy accrues to shareholders, some to homeowners. What appears > in dispute is that partitioning, and not the existence of the subsidy. information backing up your position. I find this one line curious; "The study also suggests that these institutions [FNMA and FHLMC] pass little of the benefit of their government-sponsored status to homeowners in the form of lower mortgage rates." And elsewhere in the quote it offers a best estimate of 7 basis points for the savings to the homeowner. A savings of $280 on a $400K mortgage. I'll concede that it may indeed be a subsidy, if only because The Maestro says it's so. JOE |
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#19
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| joetaxpayer <joetaxpayer[at]nospam.com> writes: - quote - > I get it, maybe. Maybe I am hung up by the fact that this could have
And it happens all the time. All those jumbo loans,> happened completely without government involvement. Securitization of > mortgages requires no government guarantee, just, perhaps, a third for example. Some of the banks hold on to them and most are sold into the secondary market. To see the size of the subsidy, compare rates on a conforming loan against a non-conforming one. A two second glance at Bankrate.com shows the current premium to be about 0.84%, which is actually at the very high end of the range - over most of the last 20 years, it's been closer to 0.5% on average and as tight as 0.25% (IIRC). - quote - > party auditing to be sure the mortgages were originated using certain
It's a subsidy in the economic sense - there's an implied> guidelines. If that were the case, the word 'subsidy' would just > strike me as odd. It appears intuitive to me that these mortgages are > more easily repacked into notes. guarantee. Kind of like an insurance policy - even if it's not exercised, it has a value. Someone's absorbing that risk. - quote - > On the other hand, say I now create a process where I offer to package
(by "higher rating" you probably mean "tighter spread" but okay).> mortgages which have a loan to value of 50% or less. It would stand to > reason that those notes should have a high rating even for a larger > value. The problem is one of feeding your production pipeline - finding such mortgages being sold of into the secondary market. -- Plain Bread alone for e-mail, thanks. The rest gets trashed. No HTML in E-Mail! -- http://www.expita.com/nomime.html Are you posting responses that are easy for others to follow? http://www.greenend.org.uk/rjk/2000/06/14/quoting |
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#18
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| "Elle" <honda.lioness[at]nospam.earthlink.net> wrote in message news:13c8oprc68eeu24[at]corp.supernews.com... - quote - > > > > > . But
What part of the first quote above doesn't refer to geographic differences> > > we don't call the geographic differences "subsidies," > > > Of course, Elizabeth. My post does not assert what you > mistakedly (post-o for you?) inferred. not being called subsidies? No, kitten kaboodle wasn't a post-o, just an error. My post was neither an error nor a post-o. Elizabeth Richardson |
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#17
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| "Elizabeth Richardson" <erichktn[at]worldnet.att.net> wrote in message news:R%Zwi.38611$ax1.13906[at]bgtnsc05-news.ops.worldnet.att.net... - quote - > Yes, you were saying 5-10%, I was saying more than 10%, or more than
And I might edit to add that the example difference is nearly 14%, where thedouble > the difference of 5%. Is that really splitting hairs? I think not, else you > have a very different definition of splitting hairs. comparison was to an expensive part of the country. The disparity grows if you want to compare to places in Texas where the price of gas is under $2.00. At that point, you can say this disparity is more than 33%, hardly splitting hairs with your 5-10% assertion. Elizabeth Richardson |
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#16
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| "joetaxpayer" <joetaxpayer[at]nospam.com> wrote in message news:24SdnZaAzYWU_FnbnZ2dnUVZ_hqdnZ2d[at]comcast.com... - quote - > I get it, maybe. Maybe I am hung up by the fact that this could have
"Given [Fannie's and Freddie's] ties to the government and the consequent> happened completely without government involvement. Securitization of > mortgages requires no government guarantee, just, perhaps, a third party > auditing to be sure the mortgages were originated using certain > guidelines. If that were the case, the word 'subsidy' would just strike me > as odd. It appears intuitive to me that these mortgages are more easily > repacked into notes. > [...] > Maybe I am looking at this too simplistically, but it looks to me a bit > like 'the good housekeeping seal of approval'. One has an an advantage by > getting that seal, and I suppose a disadvantage if they do not. But a > riskier product doesn't deserve it. private market subsidized debt they issue ... "[Fed Reserve economist] Passmore's analysis suggests ... the associated present value of homeowner savings is only about half the after-tax subsidy of these GSEs are estimated to receive. ... A substantial portion of these GSE's implicit subsidy accrues to GSE shareholders in the form of increased dividends and stock market value. Fannie and Freddie, as you know, have disputed the conclusions of many of these studies." Alan Greenspan, 2004. http://www.federalreserve.gov/boardd...24/default.htm In other words, the quasi-governmental nature of the GSEs accounts for lower-than-market costs of the loaned money - this is more than your "good housekeeping seal of approval" due to mortgages meet higher standards. Some of that subsidy accrues to shareholders, some to homeowners. What appears in dispute is that partitioning, and not the existence of the subsidy. Mark Freeland BnetOnewX[at]sbcglobal.net |
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#15
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| "Elle" <honda.lioness[at]nospam.earthlink.net> wrote in message news:13c8ok1jn01p69d[at]corp.supernews.com... - quote - > "Elizabeth Richardson" <erichktn[at]worldnet.att.net> wrote
Yes, you were saying 5-10%, I was saying more than 10%, or more than double> > California has much higher taxes than > > other states, so > > gas prices there are generally much higher - more than 10% > > higher in > That's still close, IMO, and well-known, too. I think you're > splitting hairs, particularly when the context indicated we > were speaking of differences on the order of factors of > five-to-ten. the difference of 5%. Is that really splitting hairs? I think not, else you have a very different definition of splitting hairs. Elizabeth Richardson |
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#14
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| "Elizabeth Richardson" <erichktn[at]worldnet.att.net> wrote - quote - > "Elle" <honda.lioness[at]nospam.earthlink.net> wrote in
Of course, Elizabeth. My post does not assert what you> message > news:13c8lp08dbk2l64[at]corp.supernews.com... > > > . . . I am sure there are other forms of > > government assistance (or non-assistance) and regulation > > that result in the same "disparity" to which you object. > > But > > we don't call the geographic differences "subsidies," > > unless > > we are arguing for some sort of odd leveling that, in > > turn, > > is also a subsidy for those choosing to live in the more > > expensive parts of the country. > There are a number of places in this country where federal > employees receive > a non-taxable cost of living adjustment. mistakedly (post-o for you?) inferred. I think Tad's poor (IMO) choice of wording led to opening a can of worms. By his reasoning, there is one heckuva lot in the markets that could be called a "subsidy," due to government presence or abscence. |
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#13
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| "Elizabeth Richardson" <erichktn[at]worldnet.att.net> wrote - quote - > "Elle" <honda.lioness[at]nospam.earthlink.net> wrote
That's still close, IMO, and well-known, too. I think you're> > Perhaps the reason groceries and gas do not > > get too out or whack geographically speaking is because > > of > > the fact we are linked geographically. Gas station X is > > one-half mile west of Y which is 25 yards west of Z... > > all > > the way from Maryland to California. They're all > > competing > > against each other. Hence prices are close. > This is incorrect. California has much higher taxes than > other states, so > gas prices there are generally much higher - more than 10% > higher in splitting hairs, particularly when the context indicated we were speaking of differences on the order of factors of five-to-ten. |
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#12
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| kastnna wrote: - quote - > On Aug 15, 10:33 pm, joetaxpayer <joetaxpa...[at]nospam.com> wrote:
I get it, maybe. Maybe I am hung up by the fact that this could have> > I don't follow that logic. FNMA is packaging loans for resale, thus > > providing some greater level of liquidity than would exist otherwise. > > The fact that people are getting a loan at a lower interest rate doesn't > > strike me as a subsidy. Subsidy usually implies a transfer of wealth, > > that doesn't seem to be the case here. > > JOE > Economically speaking I think it is a subsidy. Because a gov't program > allows for increased liquity and the ability to "sell away the risk" a > lower interest rate is offered than would be if the market were > allowed to reach an equilibrium on it own. Had FNMA never been > created, these borrowers would have a higher rate than they do today. > The wealth transfer comes from the taxpaying body of the US and goes > to those that are able to obtain this lower than market rate. happened completely without government involvement. Securitization of mortgages requires no government guarantee, just, perhaps, a third party auditing to be sure the mortgages were originated using certain guidelines. If that were the case, the word 'subsidy' would just strike me as odd. It appears intuitive to me that these mortgages are more easily repacked into notes. On the other hand, say I now create a process where I offer to package mortgages which have a loan to value of 50% or less. It would stand to reason that those notes should have a high rating even for a larger value. Would this be a subsidy? It gives those an advantage if they are able to put 50% down, and disadvantage to the lower down payment mortgages. Maybe I am looking at this too simplistically, but it looks to me a bit like 'the good housekeeping seal of approval'. One has an an advantage by getting that seal, and I suppose a disadvantage if they do not. But a riskier product doesn't deserve it. And the higher value mortgages should have a bit lower rating all in all. JOE |
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#11
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| "Elle" <honda.lioness[at]nospam.earthlink.net> wrote in message news:13c8lp08dbk2l64[at]corp.supernews.com... - quote - > . . . I am sure there are other forms of
There are a number of places in this country where federal employees receive> government assistance (or non-assistance) and regulation > that result in the same "disparity" to which you object. But > we don't call the geographic differences "subsidies," unless > we are arguing for some sort of odd leveling that, in turn, > is also a subsidy for those choosing to live in the more > expensive parts of the country. a non-taxable cost of living adjustment. Washington, DC, Hawaii, and Alaska are 3 locales that I know about; I believe there are others. In the case of DC this is a 25% COLA. And remember, I said non-taxable! Wouldn't you call that a subsidy? Elizabeth Richardson |
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#10
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| "Elle" <honda.lioness[at]nospam.earthlink.net> wrote in message news:13c8m23qdmvg5ec[at]corp.supernews.com... - quote - > Perhaps the reason groceries and gas do not
This is incorrect. California has much higher taxes than other states, so> get too out or whack geographically speaking is because of > the fact we are linked geographically. Gas station X is > one-half mile west of Y which is 25 yards west of Z... all > the way from Maryland to California. They're all competing > against each other. Hence prices are close. gas prices there are generally much higher - more than 10% higher in most instances. Right now, however, gas in San Diego, usually a very high-priced locale and in the recent past had higher gas prices than here in southeast Alaska, is under $3.00/gallon, while gas here is $3.45. Groceries here have generally been about 10-15% higher than Seattle where I've done price comparisons, although in recent years the spread has narrowed. Elizabeth Richardson |
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#9
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| "Bucky" <uw_badgers[at]email.com> wrote - quote - > On Aug 15, 5:25 pm, "Elle"
I think the only way they can is if the free market is not> <honda.lion...[at]nospam.earthlink.net> wrote: > > It's simply a fact that some parts of the country and > > world > > are more expensive than others. It's no more a subsidy > > than > > paying less for a bag of groceries, a tank of gas, or a > > car > > repair in Pohunk, Iowa is. How unfair is that? Should the > > government set limits on these items, too? > if groceries, gas, or car repair can differ by 5-10x, then > yes. allowed to work. Perhaps the reason groceries and gas do not get too out or whack geographically speaking is because of the fact we are linked geographically. Gas station X is one-half mile west of Y which is 25 yards west of Z... all the way from Maryland to California. They're all competing against each other. Hence prices are close. Also, laws against, for example, monopolies and gasoline price gouging, are present. |
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#8
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| "TB" <borekfm[at]pacbell.net> wrote - quote - > Joe (& Elle) - I'm speaking of "subsidy" as used in
So am I. The wiki definition is the usual one. Nor does the> economics. wiki article make any claim that the geographic differences in cost of living for the conforming mortgage result in a "subsidy." Social Security, for one, is not indexed by geographic location, either. I am sure there are other forms of government assistance (or non-assistance) and regulation that result in the same "disparity" to which you object. But we don't call the geographic differences "subsidies," unless we are arguing for some sort of odd leveling that, in turn, is also a subsidy for those choosing to live in the more expensive parts of the country. This would be a subsidy, too, and one whose fairness is as debatable as anything else in this thread. |
| Tags |
| conforming, mortgages |
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