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| Gene E. Utterback, EA wrote: - quote - > I believe that this only enables the establishment of a profit sharing plan
There's nothing in the IRC any longer that requires a "profit" for a> but does not specifically allow contributions in years the company has no > profit. profit sharing plan. Rather, the limitations are solely based on covered compensation, both for the contribution under Section 404 and the allocation under Section 415. Many, many years ago I believe there was such a reference in the code, but it no longer exists. The term "profit sharing plan" is simply a term of art now--much like "first time homebuyer" is (you can be buying your fifth home and still be a first time homebuyer as far as Section 72 is concerned). -- Ed Zollars, CPA Phoenix, Arizona |
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| Gene E. Utterback, EA wrote: - quote - > I believe that this only enables the establishment of a profit
I've never let the absence of a profit slow me down on this.> sharing plan but does not specifically allow contributions in > years the company has no profit. Indeed, many small businesses are cleverly managed so as to minimize or eliminate any significant profit. My view is that the term "profit sharing" is simply a recognition that the amount of contributions is DISCRETIONARY and can change from year to year. Contrast this with a "pension" plan that REQUIRES an annual contribution based on a fixed formula. MTW |
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| I am having a rather interesting "discussion" with a prospective client regarding their company's profit sharing plan. Here are the facts as I've received them: Client has an S corporation, formed in 1999; S Corporation has NEVER had any profit shown on the return; S Corporation's financial advisor sold them a "Profit-Sharing" plan back in 2000; S Corporation's financial advisor has had them contribute to the profit sharing plan each year since inception - for both the owners and unrelated employees. Our discussion revolves around this question "how does one calculate the employer's contributions for a profit sharing plan when the company has never had any profits?" I know IRS Section 401(a)(27)(A) "The determination of whether the plan under which any contributions are made is a profit-sharing plan shall be made without regard to current or accumulated profits of the employer and without regard to whether the employer is a tax-exempt organization." I believe that this only enables the establishment of a profit sharing plan but does not specifically allow contributions in years the company has no profit. Any information or guidance would be appreciated. Thanks, Gene E. Utterback, EA |
| Tags |
| calculation, profit, sharing |
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