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| - quote - > > I am thinking of changing my brokerage accounts to cash only, from
Margin can introduce so much complexity to interpreting> > margin, in order to remove any hassle. > Another thing to do is just call the broker up and tell > them to journal the positions you care about to the > cash side of the account. where you stand as to balances, etc. It can split positions, and I'm puzzled by seeing an entire cash position disappear and being listed as margin (does that mean it was lent to someone else or that checks cannot be written on it?). Anyway, is margin unsuitable for someone who simply wants a safety valve to be able to sell short maybe once per decade (or less) on an emergency basis? Don't need any of the other capabilities of margin. Alternatives are to use short-type mutual funds like profunds or rydex, but then you run up against potential short term trading fees when driven by emergency issues. Or you can avoid fees by having a native mutual fund acct but that means trapping assets in a normally unsuitable environment for just that once in a great while need for inverse tracking. There were supposed to be etf's developed with inverse tracking, which would be a perfect solution that would allow discarding the margin account. But etf's aren't proving popular enough for some of the unusual types to be developed that were once projected. |
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| Cynthia wrote: - quote - > My question is around margin accounts and qualified dividends. I know
The problem occurs not just from having a margin account, but rather> that the new federal tax rates for qualified dividends are 15% rather > than ordinary rates. But I have also read something about > hyperthocated (something like that) dividends, which I think are those > that are received in a marginable account when one's shares are loaned > out (as a result of the margin agreement). Dividends received are > then NOT subject to the 15% tax rate. > Can someone give me direction about how one's qualified dividends will > be treated in 2004 when received in an account that has margin > priviledges? Assume that the stock paying dividends is owned long in > the account and no margin is actually being used. (Not sure if it even > matters what I do with margin). from having dividend-paying securities lent out from that account. You wouldn't necessarily have been aware of this in the past, it's something your broker is allowed to do because you have a margin account. When that happens, the person who borrowed the securities (presumably to sell them short, as Rich described) pays you cash to replace the dividend you would have received if the stock was still in your account. That replacement payment is not a "qualified dividend," and is taxed as ordinary income. I've only begun to digest the new 1099 reporting but I believe these payments are reported separately. So if all of this income is listed on form 1099-DIV as "qualified" then this appears to be just a potential problem with your account, that didn't come to pass in 2003. - quote - > I am thinking of changing my brokerage accounts to cash only, from
If you have a lot of dividend paying stocks (or your tax bracket is> margin, in order to remove any hassle. high) that might not be a bad idea. Some people like to have margin as an emergency source of cash, but if you aren't using it and don't plan to, why bother? - quote - > My broker sent me a pamphlet that explained that they would make me
Yes I saw that in one firm's notice and thought it odd...seems that> whole tax wise as a result of the difference in tax rates. And I > thought, well, geez, will I have to pay tax on this? And then I > thought....well, geez, I don't use margin, maybe just remove the > hassle factor completely by going to a cash only account. would be taxable interest. And no doubt they don't guarantee that payment in the future, it's probably motivated by a concern over disclosure. They do make money from securities lending and if it makes you, the securities owner, worse off...well then arguably the disclosures should be explicit about the effect wrt taxes (hence the recent amendments to account agreements). If you really don't use margin, going to a cash account makes sense - it would be one less thing to worry about. -Tad |
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| Gumbee1009[at]aol.com (Cynthia) writes: - quote - > My question is around margin accounts and qualified dividends. I know
When you have a margin account you agree to let your broker lend> that the new federal tax rates for qualified dividends are 15% rather > than ordinary rates. But I have also read something about > hyperthocated (something like that) dividends, which I think are those > that are received in a marginable account when one's shares are loaned > out (as a result of the margin agreement). Dividends received are > then NOT subject to the 15% tax rate. out ("hypothecate") your shares at any time. Why does your broker want to lend out your shares? So that the person he lends them to can short sell them. Imagine that you have 100sh XYZ in your margin account. Your broker lends them to person B who short sells them to person C. Now XYZ pays a $2/sh dividend. Obviously person C gets the $200 dividend -- he actually holds the shares, after all. But you sorta hold the shares as well (even though you didn't actually own them on the dividend record date), so you need to get $200 too. What happens is that person B who sold them short gets charged $200 by his broker, and that $200 is given to you. But notice what happened -- you did not get a $200 dividend from XYZ. You got a $200 payment from the short-seller. Therefore, you are not entitled to qualified dividend status on that $200. Another way to look at it is that the company paid out $200 of qualified dividends on those shares, yet the "holders" of those shares (you and person C) got $400 total. Obviously there's no way all $400 could be qualified dividends since the company only paid out $200 of qualified dividends. As a side note, the same issue comes up for proxies for a very similar reason. - quote - > Can someone give me direction about how one's qualified dividends will
See above.> be treated in 2004 when received in an account that has margin > priviledges? - quote - > Assume that the stock paying dividends is owned long in
It doesn't matter. Many (all?) margin account agreements let> the account and no margin is actually being used. (Not sure if it even > matters what I do with margin). the broker hypothecate the shares whether or not there's a debit balance. But double-check your agreement and talk to your broker. Often accounts with no debit balances are at the last to be used as a source of lended shares. - quote - > I am thinking of changing my brokerage accounts to cash only, from
Another thing to do is just call the broker up and tell> margin, in order to remove any hassle. them to journal the positions you care about to the cash side of the account. - quote - > My broker sent me a pamphlet that explained that they would make me
Really? (boggle) I'd love to see the language on that pamphlet.> whole tax wise as a result of the difference in tax rates. They say they are actually going to pay you cold hard cash if any qualified dividends get turned to non-qual dividends due to stock in your account being lent out? In any case, if they actually make such a payment, it'll certainly be taxable income. -- Rich Carreiro rlcarr[at]animato.arlington.ma.us |
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| If you want to point me to a reference on this rather than explain, I would be totally OK. My question is around margin accounts and qualified dividends. I know that the new federal tax rates for qualified dividends are 15% rather than ordinary rates. But I have also read something about hyperthocated (something like that) dividends, which I think are those that are received in a marginable account when one's shares are loaned out (as a result of the margin agreement). Dividends received are then NOT subject to the 15% tax rate. Can someone give me direction about how one's qualified dividends will be treated in 2004 when received in an account that has margin priviledges? Assume that the stock paying dividends is owned long in the account and no margin is actually being used. (Not sure if it even matters what I do with margin). I am thinking of changing my brokerage accounts to cash only, from margin, in order to remove any hassle. My broker sent me a pamphlet that explained that they would make me whole tax wise as a result of the difference in tax rates. And I thought, well, geez, will I have to pay tax on this? And then I thought....well, geez, I don't use margin, maybe just remove the hassle factor completely by going to a cash only account. Any info that you have on qualified dividends in a margin account would be helpful. Thanks in advance for your inputs. Cynthia |
| Tags |
| accounts, dividends, margin, qualified |
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